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Code d'Examen: E20-520
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Calriion solutions specialist exam)
Questions et réponses: 520 Q&As

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NO.1 A storage administrator tries to create a clone group on a CLARiiON CX4 and receives an error
message that stops the clone group from being created.What could be a possible cause?
A.MirrorView has not been configured.
B.Population latency has not been configured.
C.No CPLs have been allocated.
D.No reserved LUNs have been allocated.
Answer:C

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NO.2 During normal MirrorView/S operations, Navisphere Manager permits host access to how many
secondary images?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.4
Answer:A

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NO.3 The number and size of SnapView pointers have reached memory allocation. What will take place to
adjust to this situation?
A.Pointers will be paged to the reserved LUN as required.
B.128 KB memory chunks will be added until the memory usage has been satisfied.
C.Pointers will be paged to and from the reserved LUN as required in 512 KB chunks.
D.An additional reserve LUN will be required.
Answer:C

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NO.4 If a customer wants to present a secondary image LUN of a MirrorView/S mirror set to a host, what
must they do first?
A.The primary image must be removed from the mirror set.
B.The secondary image must be placed in the host storage group.
C.The secondary image must be removed from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
D.The secondary image must be fractured from the mirror set or the secondary image promoted to a
primary image.
Answer:C

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NO.5 In a MirrorView/S environment, a primary image is owned by SPA on the primary array. Which SP must
own the secondary image on the secondary array within the same mirror set?
A.Either SP on the secondary array
B.SPB on the secondary array
C.SPA on the secondary array
D.It is marked as a private LUN on the secondary array
Answer:C

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NO.6 The primary image of a MirrorView/S mirror set has trespassed from SPA to SPB on the primary
array.Which SP now owns the secondary image?
A.ALUA determines ownership
B.SPA on the secondary array
C.Neither SPA or SPB
D.SPB on the secondary array
Answer:D

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NO.7 What makes sizing of the reserved LUN pool a non-trivial task?
A.Reserved LUNs are assigned to specific source LUNs when the CLARiiON is laid out.
B.Source LUNs can be different sizes and only write to LUNs of the same size.
C.Reserved LUN pools may be different sizes and allocation to source LUNs is based on the next
available reserved LUN.
D.There are 512 reserved LUNs in all CLARiiON models while there may be many more source LUNs.
Answer:C

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NO.8 Which best describes the MirrorView/A replication process?
A.A write is received, tracked in the SAN Copy delta set mechanism, transmitted to the secondary array.
B.A write is received, tracked in the fracture log, transmitted to the secondary array.
C.A write is received, tracked in the SnapView private LUN, transmitted to the secondary array.
D.A write is received, tracked in the write intent log, transmitted to the secondary array.
Answer:A

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NO.9 A customer starts four SnapView sessions on a source LUN. The sessions are scheduled to start at
8:00 A.M., 12:00 P.M., 4:00 P.M., and 8:00 P.M. At 5:15 P.M. the reserved LUN pool runs out of
space.What will happen next?
A.Most recently allocated reserved LUN will be released.
B.Reserved LUN allocated first will be released.
C.Space used by all sessions on the source LUN will be released.
D.Space used by the session that performed the most recent write will be released.
Answer:D

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NO.10 A customer intends to use clones in their environment. They are concerned about the usability of clone
data.They ask about the result of removing a clone from a clone group.Which statement describes the
result of that operation?
A.Clone LUN may be used for reverse-synchronization operations.
B.Clone LUN may be used for synchronization operations.
C.Data on the clone LUN is flagged in the clone private LUN.
D.Data on the clone LUN is not affected and may be used by a host.
Answer:D

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NO.11 What CLARiiON is needed to meet a customer's requirement for their MirrorView/S environment that
will have 50 consistency groups?
A.CX4, FLARE 22
B.CX4, FLARE 28
C.CX3, FLARE 26
D.CX3, FLARE 28
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which statement describes the operation of the reserved LUN pool?
A.LUN IDs of reserved LUNs in the reserved LUN pool can only be between 2048 and 4096.
B.All reserved LUNs must be the same size, on FC disks, and have the same RAID type.
C.Separate reserved LUN pools are required for SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
D.Reserved LUN pool is shared between SnapView, Incremental SAN Copy, and MirrorView/A.
Answer:D

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NO.13 A storage administrator wants to use a point-in-time copy of a production LUN for testing and possibly
keep any changed data from that copy. The administrator's goal is to minimize the performance impact on
the production LUN as well as use the point-in-time copy for restoring their data.What is the extent size for
this LUN?
A.Use a clone and promote it as needed
B.Use a clone and reverse-synchronize as needed
C.Use a snapshot of a clone and roll back as needed
D.Use a snapshot and deactivate command to make changes permanent on the production LUN
Answer:B

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NO.14 What happens when a snapshot is deactivated?
A.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the primary host.
B.The SnapView session ends.
C.The snapshot becomes inaccessible to the secondary host.
D.All metadata is removed from the SP.
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which device is enabled by default when creating a mirror set in a MirrorView/S environment on a
CX4-120 with FLARE 28?
A.Write intent log
B.Reserved LUN pool
C.Secondary Image
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:B

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NO.16 What is the process for flagging source LUNs?
A.Snapshots are created, changing the LUN's state.
B.Via GUI interface or CLI the state change bit is switched.
C.The PSM LUN is set to "source."
D.Via Navisphere Analyzer the FLARE LUN is changed to a PSM LUN.
Answer:A

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NO.17 What does the fracture log allow?
A.Incremental resynchronization of data
B.Creation of markers for each modified track
C.Capture of persistency errors from the source to target
D.Connectivity failures from both directions
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which object would maintain the changes to a source LUN in the event a MirrorView/S configuration
suffered a link outage followed by an SP trespass?
A.Metavolume
B.Fracture log
C.Write intent log
D.Clone private LUN
Answer:C

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NO.19 Should a SnapView session stop automatically, what will happen to the running sessions?
A.All sessions pointing to the clone will fail over to SP B and continue to write.
B.All sessions running on the source LUN will be terminated.
C.Host buffers will be flushed and sessions restarted.
D.All memory mapping entries will be saved to the COFW log.
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which statement applies when the Protected Restore option is enabled on a clone?
A.Once the reverse synchronization is complete, the clone is fractured.
B.All SnapView sessions on the source LUN must be stopped.
C.A clone cannot be marked "dirty" before starting a reverse synchronization.
D.When reverse synchronization is in process, no writes are allowed to the source LUN or clone.
Answer:A

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L'avènement de la certification EMC pratique d'examen E20-610 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: E20-610
Nom d'Examen: EMC (CLARiiON)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 Which user account is needed to install drivers on UNIX servers?
A. sys
B. root
C. oracle
D. Administrator
Answer: B

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NO.2 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
How is the metalun configured in the image?
A. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
B. "Lun id" 65 and 75 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
C. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are concatenated, Component 0 and 1 are striped
D. "Lun id" 2034 and 2035 are striped, Component 0 and 1 are striped concatenated
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the minimum amount of needs in a CLARiiON CX400 to have a hostpare?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 15
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two [2] are valid methods of managing CLARiiON snapshots?
A. navilcli
B. admsnap
C. admcilone
D. admhosts
E. java-jar navicli.jar
Answer: A.B

NO.5 What are the steps to add a disk to a Sun Solaris host online (no reboot of the host)?
A. Drvconfig, disks
B. Drvconfig, format, label
C. Drvconfig, disks, devlinks
D. Vi sd.conf, touch /reconfigure, init 6
Answer: C

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NO.6 DRAG DROP
What is the Power-on Sequence on the CLARiiON CX series?
Answer:

NO.7 What is a valid frontend SP ALPA address on CLARiiON FCC4700 series?
A. 0 - 124
B. 0 - 128
C. 0 - 224
D. 0 - 255
Answer: A

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Match the failover modes to the software product.
Answer:

NO.9 Which command allows for the extraction of all lines containing EMC case insensitive from the file test
txt?
A. vi test.txt
B. ed test.txt -EMC
C. grep EMC test.txt
D. grep -I emc test.txt
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which component verifies that proper cabling has been done to the Katana?
A. SPS
B. Services Processor
C. LCC Loop ID LEDs
D. Fibre Channel Director
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the ksh syntax to use vi commands for the shell history?
A. set-o vi
B. set-h vi
C. set-hist vi
D. export history=vi
Answer: A

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NO.12 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What does the "Alignment Offset" function align?
A. Lun on the raidgroup
B. Partition on the stripe boundary of a lun
C. Partition on the stripe size on the raidgroup
D. Partition on the metalun stripe element size
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which 2 mirror drives are the boot disks for SPB on a CLARiiON CX600?
A. 0_0_0
B. 0_0_1
C. 0_0_2
D. 0_0_3
Answer: B.D

NO.14 How does the CLARiiON preserves data in write cache during a power failure of a CX600?
A. The CX600 dumps the cache into the PSM
B. The CX600 dumps the cache into the vault area
C. The CX600 flushes the cache into the data disks
D. The CX600 dumps the cache onto the reserved space
Answer: B

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NO.15 Select three [3] items that are true about Snap View Clones.
A. Uses CLI Provider NDU
B. Can be mounted lat any time
C. Uses COFW, Copy on First Write
D. Must be exact same size of source LUNs
E. Must use a minimum of one snap cache LUN
F. Can only be created on an array with AccessLongix
Answer: A, D, F

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NO.16 Which three [3] characteristics do Veritas Volume manager, ALX LVM, HPUX LVM, and Solstice Disk
Suite have in common?
A. Striping at the host level
B. Provides data protection
C. Places a unique label on each disk
D. Groups disks together in volume groups
E. Creates large volumes out of smaller disks
Answer: A, B, E

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NO.17 Exhibit: *** MISSING ***
What is the function of the "No install verify" select while binding a lun as shown in the image?
A. It will not verify the alignment offset
B. It will not verify contiguous free space
C. It will not verify if the raidgroup was transitioning
D. It will not do a background verify after the lun has been bound
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the status of CX600 cache during the battery test in release 12?
A. read cache gets disabled
B. write cache gets disabled
C. read and write cache are not disabled
D. both read and write cache gets disabled
Answer: D

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NO.19 Why is a snapview session lost an SP failure?
A. The session was not persistent
B. The host agent was not running
C. The snapshot was not mounted
D. The snapshot was not in a storagegroup
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which CLI commands is used to verify the installed software versions?
A. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-list
B. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-installed
C. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 ndu-check
D. navcli-h 192.168.1.1 software-list
Answer: A

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Le meilleur matériel de formation examen EMC E20-594

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Code d'Examen: E20-594
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup and Recovery - Avamar Specialist Exam for Implementation Engineers)
Questions et réponses: 117 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the recommended replication method for moving all data and clients from a single node to a
multinode EMC Avamar server?
A./REPLICATE replication
B.Normal replication
C.Selective replication
D.Root-to-root replication
Answer:D

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NO.2 What would you run to determine if your EMC Avamar server is running in a steady state?
A.status.dpn
B.healthcheck.pl
C.capacity.sh
D.dpnctl status
Answer:C

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NO.3 Garbage collection is running on an EMC Avamar server. What activities can be performed at this time?
A.Delete backups, and change retention settings
B.Restore, browse existing backups, and queue backups
C.Restore, delete backups, and add new clients
D.Change retention settings, and modify clients and domains
Answer:B

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NO.4 What is the default duration of the Backup window in EMC Avamar?
A.8 hours
B.12 hours
C.6 hours
D.10 hours
Answer:B

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NO.5 Which field within the DPN Summary report indicates how much data has been transferred to the EMC
Avamar server?
A.ModSent
B.Overhead
C.ModReduced
D.TotalBytes
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which hash represents each data chunk processed during an EMC Avamar backup?
A.root
B.composite
C.atomic
D.file metadata
Answer:C

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NO.7 What is the access mode of the server during an EMC Avamar checkpoint maintenance activity?
A.Read-only during checkpoint creation; read-write for the remainder of the activity
B.Read-only throughout the activity
C.Access is disabled during checkpoint creation; read-only for the remainder of the activity
D.Access is disabled throughout the activity
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which mode(s) of EMC Avamar replication allows for many-to-one and bi-directional replication?
A.Normal
B.Root-to-root
C.Full Copy
D.Normal and root-to-root
Answer:A

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NO.9 Which backup level(s) does the EMC Avamar SQL Plug-in support?
A.Full and Incremental only
B.Full, Differential, and Incremental
C.Full only
D.Full and Differential only
Answer:B

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NO.10 What is the default IP address assigned to the management port of an EMC Avamar Data Store node?
A.10.99.99.1
B.10.99.99.99
C.10.99.99.5
D.10.99.99.0
Answer:C

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NO.11 Which port must be open on an EMC Avamar utility node to be able to browse a client file system?
A.28001
B.27000
C.26000
D.28002
Answer:D

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NO.12 Which port does EMC Avamar use to access the Management Console database for reporting?
A.7778
B.5555
C.28002
D.29000
Answer:B

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NO.13 The EMC Avamar backup administrator is starting an ad-hoc backup using the Avamar Administrator
interface. However, you notice that avtar is not starting on the client.
Where is the first place you should look to begin troubleshooting?
A.err.log
B.avtar.log
C.avscc.log
D.avagent.log
Answer:D

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NO.14 By default, where are the EMC Avamar files located on a Solaris client?
A./opt/AVMRclnt
B./opt/bin/avmrclnt
C./opt/lib/avmrclnt
D./usr/sbin/AVMRclnt
Answer:A

EMC   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594   E20-594

NO.15 What does an HFS check do?
A.Validates the integrity of a checkpoint
B.Performs server checkpoint rollbacks
C.Performs a snapshot of an Avamar server
D.Checks for RAID controller errors
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: E22-186
Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint Administration Exam)
Questions et réponses: 138 Q&As

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NO.1 A Microsoft SharePoint customer's database is running out of space due to excessive content.
What can EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint provide to help the customer.?
A. database compression
B. consolidated user interface
C. dual search mechanisms
D. storage management
Answer: D

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NO.2 How can an administrator minimize the number of permission updates in a SharePoint archive?
A. add and remove permissions for individual SharePoint users
B. add and remove groups
C. add and remove members to existing groups
D. add and remove permissions for individual Active Directory users
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator is adding a SharePoint Farm server and needs to impersonate a user with these
details:
User name = uname
Domain = corp
Which format is valid for impersonating this user?
A. corp/uname
B. uname.corp
C. uname-corp
D. uname@corp
Answer: D

EMC   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186

NO.4 How long will a user's last query be remembered within SharePoint when the Fire-And-Forget search
feature is used?
A. 3 days
B. 7 days
C. 10 days
D. 14 days
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint search feature can end users and administrators use
to find archived SharePoint content?
A. SharePoint Advanced Search
B. SharePoint Archive Search
C. SourceOne Discovery Manager
D. SourceOne Web Search
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which mechanism is used by External BLOB Storage to externalize content into the SourceOne
Archive?
A. Server Message Block
B. WCF with HTTP binding
C. Remote Procedure Call
D. WebDAV
Answer: C

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NO.7 When performing an archive search from within SharePoint, what does the Owner List contain?
A. a list of documents the user owns and can access
B. the list of Mapped folders that the user is attempting to access
C. a list of the current user's SharePoint and Active Directory groups
D. the SourceOne Access Account information and the user's current logon information
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator needs to assign permissions for archiving SharePoint sites with EMC SourceOne for
Microsoft SharePoint. What should the administrator use to assign those permissions?
A. SourceOne Admin group
B. SourceOne Security group
C. SharePoint groups
D. SharePoint users
Answer: C

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NO.9 The administrator needs to delete a site that has permissions defined via a custom site-specific group.
What should the administrator do before the site is deleted?
A. remove the custom site-specific permission
B. change the ownership of the content to Farm Administrator
C. grant Read access to all SharePoint user accounts
D. assign a higher level group with Read access
Answer: D

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NO.10 A company's SharePoint farm content databases continue to grow past the Microsoft recommended
size. What can an administrator do to alleviate this problem?
A. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Shortcut activity to replace SharePoint content with shortcut files
B. run the EMC SourceOne SharePoint Archive activity and copy older content to an Archive folder
C. install, configure, and enable the EMC SourceOne EBS Provider for the SharePoint farm
D. ensure automatic disposition is configured on the SourceOne Archive folder
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the preferred mechanism for SharePoint permission assignment for use with EMC SourceOne
for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. SourceOne Security group
B. Active Directory group
C. Active Directory users
D. Local users
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.12 An Active Directory group has permissions for Sites A, B, and C. An end user searches for specific
documents and is presented with results from all three sites.
The SharePoint administrator deletes site B and then creates site D, granting permission to the same
Active Directory group.
The end user conducts the previous search again.
How are the end user's search results affected?
A. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included, but documents from Site B are inaccessible from
search results
B. documents from sites A, B, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
C. only documents from sites A and C are included and are accessible from search results
D. only documents from sites A, C, and D are included and are accessible from search results
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the lowest SharePoint organizational level at which the SharePoint Archive activity can be
configured?
A. Farm
B. Site
C. List
D. Folder
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which web browser property should all end users ensure is enabled to use SharePoint Archive
Search?
A. JavaScript
B. ActiveX plug-in
C. Applets
D. Allow pop-ups
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which layer in the EMC SourceOne architecture handles SharePoint archiving activities?
A. Application
B. Service
C. Provider
D. Data
Answer: B

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NO.16 An archived SharePoint site with permissions exclusively assigned via a custom site-specific group is
deleted. What is the accessibility of the archived content?
A. accessible only by a user with the Administrator role on the Mapped folder
B. accessible only by the Farm Administrator
C. accessible by a user with the Administrator role on the Native Archive folder
D. accessible only after an archive permission update task is run
Answer: A

certification EMC   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186

NO.17 What is the function of the SharePoint Archiving activity?
A. shortcuts SharePoint items into the Native Archive
B. archives SharePoint items into a Mapped folder
C. shortcuts SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
D. archives SharePoint items stored in the External BLOB Storage
Answer: B

EMC   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186   E22-186

NO.18 What is a benefit of EMC SourceOne for Microsoft SharePoint?
A. improves SharePoint performance and scalability by short-cutting content on the SharePoint SQL
servers
B. leverages the SharePoint infrastructure for retention and policy management
C. provides a single, unified search mechanism across archive and SharePoint content
D. improves management of SharePoint libraries and lists and the various content types within them
Answer: D

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NO.19 What is the External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine?
A. a SourceOne activity
B. a SharePoint task
C. a Database stored procedure
D. a SourceOne service
Answer: B

certification EMC   E22-186   E22-186

NO.20 The External BLOB Storage Garbage Collection routine recovers storage from which location?
A. Message Center
B. Large Content subdirectory
C. Worker Temp directory
D. Index Temp directory
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: E20-005
Nom d'Examen: EMC (Backup Recovery Systems and Architecture Exam)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?
A. 1
B. n-1
C. 2
D. n-2
Answer: A

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NO.2 What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?
A. Concatenation
B. Partitioning
C. Formatting
D. Grouping
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?
A. Retention period
B. Recovery point objective (RPO)
C. Recovery time objective (RTO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.4 A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the event
of a disaster?
A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost
B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours
C. Production must be resumed within nine hours
D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?
A. Reduced number of backups
B. Increased media utilization
C. Improved security and access control
D. Consolidate backup servers
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?
A. Writes data to a backup device
B. Gathers data to be backed up
C. Manages the backup operation
D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?
A. Cloning
B. Replication
C. Staging
D. Twinning
Answer: C

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NO.8 A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.
What is this time period called?
A. Recovery time objective (RTO)
B. Retention period
C. Recovery point objective (RPO)
D. Backup window
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?
A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site
B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing
C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance
D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is an example of a PCI connection?
A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card
B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card
C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card
D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.
What is this process called?
A. Cloning
B. Staging
C. Aging
D. Mirroring
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?
A. SATA
B. SCSI
C. IDE
D. ATA
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?
A. Storage node
B. Client
C. NetWorker Management Console
D. Application server
Answer: A

EMC   E20-005   E20-005

NO.14 Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O operations
on a production volume?
A. Cumulative backup
B. Incremental backup
C. Full backup
D. Synthetic full backup
Answer: D

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NO.15 You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup media. In addition to available disk
space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on disk?
A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur
B. Location of offsite storage
C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes
D. Tape capacity
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement defines retention period?
A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset
B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups
C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored
D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup.?
A. Cumulative
B. Full
C. Incremental
D. Synthetic full
Answer: A

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NO.18 What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?
A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes
B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes
C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups
D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups
Answer: A

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NO.19 A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are
performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file system
changes every day.
How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 1
D. 7
Answer: A

EMC   certification E20-005   E20-005   E20-005   E20-005

NO.20 What is recovery point objective?
A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application
B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data
C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business
D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: E20-880
Nom d'Examen: EMC (VNX Solutions Expert Exam for Technology Architects)
Questions et réponses: 128 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer has a VNX system to provide storage for a VMware Cluster with five ESX hosts. Each ESX
host has one dual-port FC HBA connected to two FC switches. They are using VMware native failover
functionality for high availability and load-balancing.
The customer requires higher availability for the ESX host connectivity to the storage system.
What would you recommend to the customer?
A. Use dual HBAs with dual ports on each ESX host.
B. Use a host-based load balancing solution.
C. Use high quality stackable FC switches.
D. Current configuration ensures the best availability.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A company has added a large number of users to a VMware VDI deployment. The users are
complaining that the system (VNX-Block) is slow, especially when they start their shift. You have been
tasked to provide an economical solution.
Which technology would you use to improve performance?
A. FAST Cache
B. FAST VP
C. FAST
D. Fast VPN
Answer: A

EMC   E20-880   E20-880   E20-880

NO.3 A customer would like to configure their VNX for File for the highest possible level of client availability.
There are five Ethernet ports on a single DataMover and a single Ethernet switch available for client
communications.
What availability features would you recommend to the customer?
A. Link Aggregation Control Protocol only
B. EtherChannel port aggregation and Fail Safe Networking
C. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation Control Protocol
D. EtherChannel port aggregation only
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer has created a thin LUN, enabled compression on a LUN Pool, and installed their Exchange
environment. The Exchange application is showing poor performance.
Which workload characteristic of Exchange would produce poor access times on a compressed LUN?
A. Small random writes
B. Small random reads
C. Sequential reads
D. Uncompressed or host based data
Answer: A

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NO.5 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:S
-85% reads and 15% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 1/0
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 14
Answer: B

EMC   certification E20-880   E20-880   E20-880

NO.6 You are working with a customer to design a VNX for Block solution for their SQL database. They
currently have a CX4-480. In the past they have co-located their database and log files. In the new VNX
design, the database will be placed in a FAST VP enabled pool. The transaction logs will be placed on a
traditional RAID Group. Your customer needs help determining the number of spindles they need to
satisfy the needs of their transaction logs.
You know the following: -Transactionperiod:8 hours (business day) -Throughput during transaction
period:240 GB
How many RAID 1/0 15K spindles will the transaction log volume require?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 16
Answer: D

EMC   E20-880   E20-880

NO.7 A customer would like to use five Ethernet ports on a VNX to increase the port and switch availability.
Two non-stackable Ethernet switches are available for the VNX and both support Full Duplex
communications.
How should the customer configure the VNX for the network?
A. Fail Safe Networking and Link Aggregation
B. Link Aggregation only
C. EtherChannel and Fail Safe Networking
D. EtherChannel only
Answer: A

EMC examen   E20-880   E20-880

NO.8 As a result of suffering a catastrophic failure, your customer has requested a DR solution. The solution
must introduce a higher level of availability for their Exchange 2010 system. You have recommended a
strategy that involves Replication Manager with native DAG.
In what state(s) of the database would the replication occur?
A. Either active or passive
B. Active only
C. Passive only
D. Neither active nor passive
Answer: A

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NO.9 A client has asked for assistance with designing his Exchange environment. The environment today is
fully virtualized and Exchange will be as well. The client is concerned about local recovery and has
decided to make VMware snapshots of their VMFS File system housing Exchange. The VMware servers
are all attached through fiber to a VNX.
What volume type is required to meet the customer's protection needs?
A. Virtual Mode RDMs
B. Physical Mode RDMs
C. VMFS
D. Dedicated RAID Group LUNs
Answer: A

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NO.10 A VNX storage system is being configured to provide storage for an Exchange 2010 implementation for
2,000 users. Performance and reliability are more important than cost for the customer.
What RAID configuration should be used?
A. A RAID 1/0 Group, spread across two DAEs on two separate storage system busses
B. Two RAID 5 Groups in a striped metaLUN across two DAEs, one from each back end bus
C. A RAID 1/0 Group on a single DAE
D. A RAID 6 Group which can accommodate two simultaneous drive failures
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer has a new VNX solution configured with Flash, SAS, and NL-SAS drives. The customer
requires their OLTP, VDI, Software Development, and Regulatory Compliance workloads to be distributed
between the different drive types. Due to limited drive quantities only one workload type can be configured
using Flash drives.
According to best practices which configuration best assigns the workloads.?
A. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
B. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
C. OLTP on Flash drives; VDI on SAS; Software Development on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on
NL-SAS
D. VDI on Flash drives; OLTP on SAS; Regulatory Compliance on SAS; Software Development on
NL-SAS
Answer: A

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NO.12 A pair of VNX storage arrays is replicating between two data centers over an iSCSI connection. The
SQL Admin has noticed that a small OLTP database with a write size of 4k periodically experiences
increased disk response times. The Storage Admin reports that during the same period, replication
sessions are taking longer to complete. The Network Admin reports degraded performance between the
sites during the same period.
Why is the SQL application seeing increased disk response times from the local array?
A. Increased latency causes the MirrorView/A update cycles to take longer, increasing COFW activity.
B. The 64 KB chunk size for MirrorView/A does not match the small transaction size of the database,
increasing the bandwidth required between the arrays.
C. The MirrorView/A update cycle time is too short. It should be increased to improve write folding.
D. The MirrorView/A buffer size should be adjusted to match the smaller write I/O size.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Your customer is designing a Proof of Concept with SQL Server attached to a VNX. The storage
design includes seven LUNs on a RAID Group. The system is generally very heavily loaded, with a
particularly high load on the cache. This is a very carefully controlled environment and your customer has
asked for assistance in planning the layout of the LUN location on the physical spindles.
Where in the RAID Group would you recommend placing the two heavily used LUNs for a short-stroked
architecture?
A. Adjacent to each other at the beginning
B. One at beginning and one at the end
C. Adjacent to each other in the middle
D. Evenly placed, as non-adjacent as possible
Answer: A

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NO.14 A customer has designed an environment using block based LUNs presented to individual hosts. They
have configured a pool to start using both thick and thin LUNs. One of the standalone servers is an
archive server running on Windows. They want to maximize capacity on the standalone server since the
data is no longer accessed. They have no more drives to increase LUN capacity.
How can the customer increase available capacity to the archive server?
A. Compress the data on the block based LUN
B. Add capacity to the existing LUN
C. Delete old files
D. Back up the files, reconfigure the LUN, and restore the data
Answer: A

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NO.15 A customer is about to implement your VNX for File design for a file-sharing environment. The design
specifies both NFS and Windows clients that access file systems in a multi-threaded manner. All file
systems will be created using the Automatic Volume Manager. The customer is most concerned with disk
efficiency, and wants to use all storage in each pool entry before creating another.
Which value would you change to meet this requirement?
A. is_greedy
B. slice
C. is_dynamic
D. stripesize
Answer: A

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NO.16 A customer is in the design phase of their SQL server implementation. They request your guidance
concerning the number of disk drives needed to properly configure the database for performance. The
current utilization of the database is shown below:
-80% reads and 20% writes
-10K SAS disks
-RAID 5
-1150 IOPS
What is the minimum number of disk spindles required to service the random I/O requests during usage of
the SQL Server database?
A. 12
B. 14
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: B

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NO.17 You are migrating a backup application that runs on physical servers to a VDC. The VDC storage is
currently a VNX configured with NL-SAS drives only. Your customer is concerned about the cost to
achieve reasonable performance. You are designing the VMs that will support the application.
Based on cost, which would be the first solution you would recommend?
A. VMware Paravirtual SCSI virtual adapter
B. Virtual adapter is BusLogic Parallel
C. FAST VP Pool (Flash and SAS drives)
D. SAS RAID Group
Answer: A

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NO.18 A customer is checking a NAR file in Unisphere Analyzer. They see that a RAID Group with only a single
LUN is shown with consistently large Disk - Average Seek Distances.
What could this indicate?
A. Randomness of the I/O
B. Write utilization
C. LUN misalignment
D. Applicationburstiness
Answer: A

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NO.19 A SQL Data Warehouse database is replicating between two VNX storage systems with Incremental
San Copy. The production database is on 15, 15k rpm SAS drives and the Reserved LUN Pool uses five
NL-SAS drives. The database is continuously updated locally and replicated once a day to maximize the
benefits of write folding. Replication takes place from 6 PM until 10 PM. At 6 PM the storage administrator
notices an increase in response time of the application, which steadily improves until 10 PM.
What should be done to improve performance during replication without affecting recovery data
granularity?
A. Put the Reserve LUN Pool on a similar disk and RAID type as the source volume.
B. Create a clone of the source volume and replicate the clone.
C. Expand the number of drives in the source volume to accommodate the increased I/O from the
replication session.
D. Adjust the San Copy throttle to minimize the impact to the production application.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which action would be most effective in reducing the performance impact of a Snapshot on a Source
LUN?
A. Using faster disks for the Source LUN
B. Using faster disks for the Reserved LUN Pool
C. Increasing the Snapshot chunk size
D. Increasing the Snapshot write-aside size
Answer: A

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Nom d'Examen: EMC (EMC Content Management Server Programming(CMSP))
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about Documentum Web Services Framework (WSF)?
A. All business objects can be exposed as Services using WSF.
B. Currently WSF does not support secured SOAP transfer.
C. WSF does not require UDDI to discover Web services.
D. Currently WSF only supports J2EE clients.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
What is the output for the code, assuming you are using a session established to Docbase C from host2?
A. null
B. Docbase C
C. Docbase B Docbase C
D. Docbase A Docbase B Docbase C
Answer: C

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NO.3 encrypt the password

NO.4 Which statement is true about the object model?
A. dmr_content is not a sub-type of dm_sysobject although sysobject contents are stored as dmr_content
objects.
B. dm_acl objects are stored in the System cabinet.
C. Not all sysobjects can have associated permissions.
D. Virtual documents are objects of type dm_relation that describe a parent/child relationship between
objects.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which interface can be used when creating repository objects that have content?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfDocument
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfContentObject
Answer: B

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NO.6 Click the <Exhibit> button.
Which interface is missing in the diagram?
A. IDfFolder
B. IDfCabinet
C. IDfPersistentObject
D. IDfNonPersistentObject
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which SBO method signature is valid for conversion to a web service?
A. void setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
B. boolean uploadConfiguration(java.io.File myFile)
C. boolean setKeyword(IDfSysObject obj, int index, String value)
D. int countDocuments(IDfSession sess, String qualification)
Answer: B

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NO.8 Given the following repositories that are projecting to the following Connection Brokers:
How do you dynamically add host2 as additional Connection Broker, such that Docbase A and Docbase B
are listed as available repositories?
A. change "host = host1" to "host = host1, host2" in dmcl.ini
B. execute IDfDocbrokerClient.addDocbroker("host2",1489);
C. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_BACKUP_1] host=host2 port=1489
D. add the following statements in the dmcl.ini: [DOCBROKER_SECONDARY] host=host2 port=1489
Answer: B

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NO.9 A TBO has been created for the custom object type called my_loan_application. If the following
statement is executed in a Webtop custom component, where is the TBO executed?
IDfSysObject loanApp = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject("my_loan_application");
A. The TBO executes on the client browser's JVM.
B. The TBO executes on the Global Registry computer.
C. The TBO executes on the application server JVM.
D. The TBO execuctes on the Content Server JVM.
Answer: C

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NO.10 How can you provide an interface for a custom object type that gets instantiated using DFC methods
such as getObject()?
A. extend IDfDocument
B. extend IDfSysObject
C. create a TBO with an interface for the custom object type
D. create an SBO with an interface for the custom object type
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which is NOT a valid interface?
A. IDfCabinet
B. IDfFolder
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfGroup
Answer: A

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NO.12 Given an SBO called com.mycompany.ICreditScore and the following statement:
newModule(repositoryName, "com.mycompany.ICreditScore", sessionMgr)
What does the statement do?
A. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
B. deploys com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
C. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore module
D. deploys and instantiates com.mycompany.ICreditScore service
Answer: C

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NO.13 add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
D. 1.create a new user as a consumer
2. designate the user as a registry user
3. encrypt the password
4. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
Answer: C

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3. You have a working registered table called "CompanyList" with one string column called
"CompanyName" with one row value "EMC."
What is the output of the following statements?
A. null
B. EMC
C. CompanyName
D. A DfException is thrown.
Answer: D

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4. Which statement is true?
A. You use the IDfClient.getQuery method to obtain an IDfQuery object.
B. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfCollection.
C. The execute method of an IDfQuery object returns an IDfEnumeration.
D. The execute method of an IDfQuery object only requires the repository name as a parameter.
Answer: B

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NO.14 How do you manually configure the DFC global registry?
A. 1.add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
B. 1.encrypt the password
2. add the dfc.bof.registry entries to the dfc.properties file.
C. 1.activate the registry user
2. change the password

NO.15 What kind of module is used to create a Documentum Web Service?
A. Type-based Business Object
B. Service-based Business Object
C. Web-based Business Object
D. Custom Module
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which statement is true about Trusted Content Services (TCS)?
A. TCS is not required to create ApplicationPermission entries.
B. TCS is not required to evaluate ApplicationPermission entries.
C. TCS is not required to delete ApplicationPermission entries.
D. TCS validates and enforces application permissions at the server level.
Answer: B

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NO.17 When are the binding rules for a virtual document actually applied?
A. When the virtual document is saved
B. When IDfSysObject.asVirtualDocument() is called
C. When IDfVirtualDocumentNode.getChildCount() is called
D. When IDfVirtualDocument.getRootNode() is called
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the correct hierarchy in the Documentum object model?
A. dm_folder inherits from dm_cabinet, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
B. dm_sysobject inherits from dm_document.
C. dm_document inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
D. dm_category inherits from dm_folder, which inherits from dm_sysobject.
Answer: D

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NO.19 Given the following architecture:
To disable full-text search for end users of Webtop, on which computer should you update the
dfc.properties file?
A. server1 only
B. app1 only
C. both server1 and local1
D. both app1 and local1
Answer: B

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NO.20 What happens when you fail to close open query collections in a DFC application?
A. Performance for other users will be impaired.
B. Eventually, no more queries can be executed.
C. Garbage collection will release appropriate resources.
D. The session will disconnect.
Answer: B

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NO.21 Which statement is true?
A. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from the current session.
B. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the current user.
C. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a new session object for the super user.
D. IDfSession.getLoginTicket() will return a ticket from a new session.
Answer: A

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NO.22 How should you deploy a TBO to the respository?
A. Using IDfClient.newModule() only
B. Using Documentum Application Installer only
C. Using both Documentum Application Installer and IDfClient.newModule()
D. Using Documentum Application Installer, IDfClient.newModule() and IDfClient.newService()
Answer: B

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NO.23 What are the minimum required components to extend custom object type behavior?
A. TBO and SBO
B. TBO and DFC
C. SBO and DFC
D. SBO and Web Services Framework
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which DFC interface provides a getCheckoutDirectory() method that returns the local checkout
directory?
A. IDfClient
B. IDfClientX
C. IDfSession
D. IDfClientRegistry
Answer: D

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NO.25 A TBO has been created for a custom object type called my_loan_application. The TBO relies on a
dependant SBO to calculate credit scores. The TBO is only invoked by the Webtop application.
Where does the SBO execute?
A. Global registry machine
B. Content Server JVM
C. Application Server JVM
D. the client browser's JVM
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which code should you use to create a copy of the current object and place it in CopyCab?
A. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.savelock();
B. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.saveAsNew( false );
C. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.newObject(myId);
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
D. IDfSysObject sysObj = (IDfSysObject)session.getObject(myId);
sysObj.unlink("/SourceCab");
sysObj.link("/CopyCab");
sysObj.save();
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which statement is true about Connection Brokers?
A. A Connection Broker is not required in order to establish a session between DFC application and
Content Server.
B. To perform IP translation through a firewall, you need to have two Connection Brokers.
C. Load balancing across Connection Brokers is not natively supported.
D. When you shut down a Content Server, it automatically shuts down its primary Connection Broker.
Answer: A

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NO.28 A custom object type called my_loan_application is created with a custom repeating attribute called
borrower_names. The data type of the attribute is String.
Which interface declares a method to update borrower_names?
A. IDfTypedObject
B. IDfType
C. IDfValueAssistance
D. IDfCustomObject
Answer: A

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NO.29 Where are the credentials located for the BOF's client dynamic delivery mechanism?
A. dfc.properties
B. dmcl.ini
C. bof.properties
D. dbor.properties
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which interface declares the save()method?
A. IDfSysObject
B. IDfTypedObject
C. IDfDocument
D. IDfPersistentObject
Answer: D

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