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2013年8月30日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 642-637
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Securing Networks with Cisco Routers and Switches (SECURE) v1.0)
Questions et réponses: 136 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Which two Cisco IOS WebVPN features are enabled with the partial configuration shown? (Choose two.)
A. The end-user Cisco AnyConnect VPN software will remain installed on the end system.
B. If the Cisco AnyConnect VPN software fails to install on the end-user PC, the end user cannot use
other modes.
C. Client based full tunnel access has been enabled.
D. Traffic destined to the 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be tunneled and will be allowed access via a split
tunnel.
E. Clients will be assigned IP addresses in the 10.10.0.0/16 range.
Answer: A,C

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NO.2 Which of these is correct regarding the configuration of virtual-access interfaces?
A. They cannot be saved to the startup configuration.
B. You must use static routes inside the tunnels.
C. DVTI interfaces should be assigned a unique IP address range.
D. The Virtual-Access 1 interface must be enabled in an up/up state administratively
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which action does the command private-vlan association 100,200 take?
A. configures VLANs 100 and 200 and associates them as a community
B. associates VLANs 100 and 200 with the primary VLAN
C. creates two private VLANs with the designation of VLAN 100 and VLAN 200
D. assigns VLANs 100 and 200 as an association of private VLANs
Answer: B

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NO.4 Refer to the exhibit.
Given the partial output of the debug command, what can be determined?
A. There is no ID payload in the packet, as indicated by the message ID = 0.
B. The peer has not matched any offered profiles.
C. This is an IKE quick mode negotiation.
D. This is normal output of a successful Phase 1 IKE exchange.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When Cisco IOS IPS is configured to use SDEE for event notification, how are events managed?
A. They are stored in the router's event store and will allow authenticated remote systems to pull events
from the event store.
B. All events are immediately sent to the remote SDEE server.
C. Events are sent via syslog over a secure SSUTLS communications channel.
D. When the event store reaches its maximum configured number of event notifications, the stored events
are sent via SDEE to a remote authenticated server and a new event store is created.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Refer to the exhibit.
The INSIDE zone has been configured and assigned to two separate router interfaces. All other zones
and interfaces have been properly configured. Given the configuration example shown, what can be
determined?
A. Hosts in the INSIDE zone, with addresses in the 10.10.10.0/24 network, can access any host in the
10.10.10.0/24 network using the SSH protocol.
B. If a host in the INSIDE zone attempts to communicate via SSH with another host on a different
interface within the INSIDE zone, communications must pass through the router self zone using the
INTRAZONE policy.
C. This is an illegal configuration. You cannot have the same source and destination zones.
D. This policy configuration is not needed, traffic within the same zone is allowed to pass by default.
Answer: D

Cisco examen   642-637   642-637 examen

NO.7 Which of these allows you to add event actions globally based on the risk rating of each event, without
having to configure each signature individually?
A. event action summarization
B. event action filter
C. event action override
D. signature event action processor
Answer: C

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NO.8 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.9 When using Cisco Easy VPN, what are the three options for entering an XAUTH username and
password for establishing a VPN connection from the Cisco Easy VPN remote router? (Choose three.)
A. using an external AAA server B. entering the information via the router crypto ipsec client ezvpn
connect CLI command in privileged EXEC mode
C. using the router local user database
D. entering the information from the PC via a browser
E. storing the XAUTH credentials in the router configuration file
Answer: B,D,E

Cisco examen   642-637   certification 642-637

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
What can be determined from the output of this show command?
A. The IPsec connection is in an idle state.
B. The IKE association is in the process of being set up.
C. The IKE status is authenticated.
D. The ISAKMP state is waiting for quick mode status to authenticate before IPsec parameters are
passed between peers
E. IKE Quick Mode is in the idle state, indicating a problem with IKE phase 1.
Answer: C

Cisco   642-637   certification 642-637

NO.11 You are running Cisco IOS IPS software on your edge router. A new threat has become an issue. The
Cisco IOS IPS software has a signature that can address the new threat, but you previously retired the
signature. You decide to unretire that signature to regain the desired protection level. How should you act
on your decision?
A. Retired signatures are not present in the routers memory. You will need to download a new signature
package to regain the retired signature.
B. You should re-enable the signature and start inspecting traffic for signs of the new threat.
C. Unretiring a signature will cause the router to recompile the signature database, which can temporarily
affect performance.
D. You cannot unretire a signature. To avoid a disruption in traffic flow, it's best to create a custom
signature until you can download a new signature package and reload the router.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
What can be determined about the IPS category configuration shown?
A. All categories are disabled.
B. All categories are retired.
C. After all other categories were disabled, a custom category named "os ios" was created
D. Only attacks on the Cisco IOS system result in preventative actions.
Answer: D

Cisco   642-637 examen   642-637

NO.13 DRAG DROP
Answer:

NO.14 Which Cisco IOS IPS feature allows to you remove one or more actions from all active signatures
based on the attacker and/or target address criteria, as well as the event risk rating criteria?
A. signature event action filters
B. signature event action overrides
C. signature attack severity rating
D. signature event risk rating
Answer: A

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NO.15 You are troubleshooting reported connectivity issues from remote users who are accessing corporate
headquarters via an IPsec VPN connection. What should be your first step in troubleshooting these
issues?
A. issue a show crypto isakmp policy command to verify matching policies of the tunnel endpoints
B. ping the tunnel endpoint
C. run a traceroute to verify the tunnel path
D. debug the connection process and look for any error messages in tunnel establishment
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-637   642-637

NO.16 Which two of these are benefits of implementing a zone-based policy firewall in transparent mode?
(Choose two.)
A. Less firewall management is needed.
B. It can be easily introduced into an existing network.
C. IP readdressing is unnecessary.
D. It adds the ability to statefully inspect non-IP traffic.
E. It has less impact on data flows.
Answer: B,C

Cisco examen   642-637   certification 642-637   642-637   642-637

NO.17 When configuring a zone-based policy firewall, what will be the resulting action if you do not specify any
zone pairs for a possible pair of zones?
A. All sessions will pass through the zone without being inspected.
B. All sessions will be denied between these two zones by default.
C. All sessions will have to pass through the router "self zone" for inspection before being allowed to pass
to the destination zone.
D. This configuration statelessly allows packets to be delivered to the destination zone.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   642-637   642-637   642-637

NO.18 Which statement best describes inside policy based NAT?
A. Policy NAT rules are those that determine which addresses need to be translated per the enterprise
security policy
B. Policy NAT consists of policy rules based on outside sources attempting to communicate with inside
endpoints.
C. These rules use source addresses as the decision for translation policies.
D. These rules are sensitive to all communicating endpoints.
Answer: A

Cisco   642-637 examen   642-637 examen

NO.19 Which of these is a configurable Cisco IOS feature that triggers notifications if an attack attempts to
exhaust critical router resources and if preventative controls have been bypassed or are not working
correctly?
A. Control Plane Protection
B. Management Plane Protection
C. CPU and memory thresholding
D. SNMPv3
Answer: C

Cisco examen   642-637 examen   642-637 examen

NO.20 Which two of these will match a regular expression with the following configuration parameters?
[a-zA-Z][0-9][a-z] (Choose two.)
A. Q3h
B. B4Mn
C. aaB132AA
D. c7lm
E. BBpjnrIT
Answer: A,D

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Code d'Examen: 350-060
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE SP Operations Written Exam)
Questions et réponses: 93 Q&As

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NO.1 According to ITIL v3 framework, which improvements should be implemented if there is an increase
in the number of false positive auto-generated incidents?
A. Update the known error database.
B. Modify the thresholds error database.
C. Modify the thresholds in the network management system
D. Update the service desk procedures.
Answer: B

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NO.2 You are working in a service provider voice NOC supporting a national VoIP network. The network
underwent a capacity expansion that added voice bearer trunks to a newly deployed media gateway. After
the new trunks were configured and placed into live service, the service desk began to receive complaints
from end customers that their VoIP service is not working for certain calls, the service desk is unable to
resolve the problem and due to increasing troubles coming in, they escalate to you.
A. Verify IP connectivity between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
B. Fail over the media gateway to its backup.
C. Identify which trunks are not functioning.
D. Verify that SIP versions are compatible between the media gateway controller and the media gateway.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A service provider upgraded its core routers to CRS-1. The service provider connects the CRS-1 to an
internal network via CRS-1 management ports. This internal network is configured with private IP
addresses. All SSH access from a service provider workstation that is incoming to the management ports
of the CRS-1 routers was tested and was found to be working properly. The routers were configured for
AAA by using the Cisco Secure Access Control Server, and AAA was working as desired. Furthermore,
SNMP traffic used the inband 10-Gigabit Ethernet ports, and all SNMP functionality was properly
configured and tested prior to the rollout. After CRS-1 routers were placed in production, a need arose to
engage Cisco TAC to perform troubleshooting and diagnosis on the routers. It was noted that while all
service provider operations staff could access the routers from the private IP-based management network,
Cisco TAC could not access the router because its connection was coming in on the inband 10-Gigabit
Ethernet ports. The VTY line ACLs were configured to allow the Cisco TAC source IP address, but that did
not fix the problem. What is a possible cause for the lack of connectivity? (Choose one.)
A. Local packet transport service is misconfigured.
B. The Cisco IOS XR administration plane is misconfigured.
C. The Cisco IOS XR IPv4 virtual address is not configured to be used as a source address.
D. Management plane protection is misconfigured.
Answer: D

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NO.4 According to ITIL v3 framework, which type of service operational management process monitors the
network infrastructure to identify and escalate abnormal operational conditions?
A. problem management
B. incident management
C. event management
D. request fulfillment
Answer: C

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NO.5 While evaluating a new hardware rollout plan before deployment, which standards should you review to
ensure that the hardware met certain environmental design guidelines?
A. NAS
B. COBIT
C. ITIL
D. NEBS
E. eTOM
Answer: D

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NO.6 The service provider that you work for decided to offer its business customers a new, hosted unified
communications service. This service will allow the service provider to maintain in its data centers all the
call managers and related hardware and software so that businesses can outsource the function to your
company. Engineering has crafted a rollout plan for this new service. From the NOC support perspective,
what are the three main considerations to take into account to support the new service? (Choose three.)
A. The SP data center has adequate power, heating, and cooling capacity.
B. The documentation is complete.
C. The network bandwidth to each customer site is sufficient.
D. The service desk has received proper training.
E. The troubleshooting procedures are established.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 There is a defective egress queuing ASIC in the data path of a router. Under certain conditions, the
ASIC may flip a bit from a large data packet from 0 to 1. The bit flip can occur only on a bit postion greater
than 128 bytes. What is the accurate statement about FTP flow transiting through this ASIC over a PPP
SONET port?
A. The downstream router will detect the bit error with PPP CRC check an correct the problem.
B. The downstream router will detect the bit error with PPP CRC check and drop the packet.
C. The downstream router will detect the bit error with IP checksum and drop the packet.
D. The downstream router will detect the bit error with TCP checksum and drop the packet.
E. The downstream router will not detect the bit error, but TCP on the sending host will retransmit the
corrupted segment.
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which three of following metrics are used to troubleshoot an incident of poor voice quality in a service
provider next-generation network? It can be assumed that adequate bandwidth is available. (Choose
three.)
A. UDP jitter
B. latency
C. TCP Connect
D. packet loss
E. round-trip time
Answer: A,D,E

Cisco examen   350-060 examen   350-060

NO.9 According to ITIL v3 framework, which type of warranty assurance provide a customer with a
measured confidence that services are supporting defined level of demand and quality?
A. security
B. availability
C. capacity
D. continuity
E. fulfillment
Answer: C

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NO.10 You are working as a Tier 2 NOC employee at a service provide. The service provisioning team has
opened a trouble ticket indicating that their provisioning application is timing out while provisioning new
MPLS VPNs for a large customer. They believe it is a network problem because not every site is
experiencing the provisioning failure. No actual customers have reported any network problems. Upon
receiving the ticket in you work queue, you perform basic troubleshooting steps and find that ping,
traceroute, and Telnet work to all the sites. You begin to doubt that the network is at fault. Which two steps
should you take before escalating to Tier 3? (Choose two.)
A. Suggest that the provisioning team reboot their servers.
B. Check for packet loss on the network path to the affected sites.
C. Review all network change requests that were submitted prior to the problem having started.
D. Verify that the ACLs are not preventing provisioning traffic.
Answer: C,D

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NO.11 A rollout plan from engineering has been sent to the NOC for deployment. Part of the plan involves a
complex software upgrade to a network element. The method of procedure provided by engineering is
nearly 100 individual steps long. Where do you expect to find backout procedures to be specified?
A. after each stop that causes a change to the network
B. after every 20 (+/-5) steps
C. after the midway point
D. after the method of procedure is completed
E. both after the midway point and after the method of procedure is completed
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which protocol should be configured on networking devices to assist operational staff in event
correlation to resolve service issues?
A. NTP
B. TACACS
C. HSRP
D. TFTP
E. RCMD
Answer: A

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NO.13 What the main difference between an SNMP trap and a syslog message?
A. SNMP traps are secure, whereas syslog messages are not.
B. SNMP traps are triggered during network outages, whereas syslog messages are informational only.
C. SNMP traps are forwarded to EMS systems, whereas syslog messages are forwarded to any NMS
system.
D. SNMP traps are user-definable and very based on vendor, whereas syslog messages are
standards-based.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Why are threshold defined based on baseline documents?
A. to ensure that QoS parameters are defined appropriately
B. to help identify current network problems and predict future bottlenecks
C. to suppress duplicate alarms and allow for event correlation
D. to reduce polling traffic on the network E. to verify that interfaces are in the correct state
Answer: B

Cisco examen   certification 350-060   350-060 examen   certification 350-060

NO.15 According to ITIL v3 framework, which type of tools is best suited to ensure management of a
predefined workflow stream containing a set of tasks which can be managed around resource availability,
timelines, status, and if needed escalation paths?
A. process control engine
B. configuration management system
C. discovery audit
D. business service management
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 642-874
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Designing Cisco Network Service Architectures)
Questions et réponses: 281 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of these Layer 2 access designs does not support VLAN extensions?
A. FlexLinks
B. loop-free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
Answer: B

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NO.2 When an Enterprise Campus network designer is addressing the merger of two companies with
different IGPs, which of the following is considered a superior routing design?
A. Eliminate the management and support for redistribution by choosing and cutting over to a single IGP
at the time of merger
B. Maintain distinct pockets across a moving boundary of routing protocols, redistributing between them
C. Manipulate the administrative distance of the different IGPs to be equal throughout the network
D. Leave the IGPs independent without redistribution wherever communication between company entities
is not required
Answer: B

Cisco   642-874   642-874 examen

NO.3 Which two of these are characteristics of MPLS VPNs? (Choose two)
A. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward only IP packets
B. Layer 2 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol
C. MPL S label paths are automatically formed based on Layer 2 frames
D. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs can forward any network protocol based on Layer 2 frames
E. In Layer 2 MPLS VPNS, the service provider controls the customer Layer 3 policies
Answer: A,B

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NO.4 Which technology is an example of the need for a designer to clearly define features and desired
performance when designing advanced WAN services with a service provider?
A. FHRP to remote branches.
B. Layer 3 MPLS VPNs secure routing
C. Control protocols (for example Spanning Tree Protocol) for a Layer 3 MPLS service.
D. Intrusion prevention, QoS, and stateful firewall support network wide.
Answer: B

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NO.5 OSPF stub areas are an important tool for the Network designer; which of the following two should be
considered when utilizing OSPF stub areas? (Choose two)
A. OSPF stub areas increase the size of the LSDB with the addition of Type 3 and 5 LSAs
B. OSPF not so stubby areas are particularly useful as a simpler form of summarization
C. OSPF stub areas are always insulated from external changes
D. OSPF stub areas can distinguish among ASBRs for destinations that are external to the OSPF domain
E. OSPF totally stubby areas cannot distinguish among ABRs for the best route to destinations outside
the area
Answer: C,E

certification Cisco   642-874 examen   certification 642-874   642-874   642-874

NO.6 DRAG DROP
Drag the best practice recommendation for an Enterprise Campus network on the left to the technology to
which it most applies on the right.
Answer:

NO.7 Which three routing protocols can minimize the number of routes advertised in the network? (Choose
three)
A. IGRP
B. RIPv2
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP
E. BGP
Answer: B,C,D

Cisco   642-874 examen   642-874   642-874 examen   642-874 examen   642-874

NO.8 Which of these recommendations is most appropriate for the core layer in the Cisco Campus
Architecture?
A. Utilize Layer 3 switching
B. Utilize software accelerated services
C. Aggregate end users and support a feature-rich environment
D. Perform packet manipulation and filtering at the core layer
E. Use redundant point to-point Layer 2 interconnections when where is a link or node failure.
Answer: A

certification Cisco   642-874   642-874   642-874 examen   642-874

NO.9 DRAG DROP
Drag the characteristic on the left the associated firewall deployment or topology on the right.
Answer:

NO.10 There are 3 steps to confirm whether a range of IP address can be summarized. When of the following
is used in each of these 3 steps?
A. The first number in the contiguous block of addresses
B. The last number in the contiguous block of addresses
C. The size of the contiguous block of addresses
D. The subnet mask of the original network address
Answer: C

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NO.11 How does ERS use the VLAN tag?
A. to provide service internetworking
B. to support transparency for Layer 2 frames
C. as a connection identifier to indicate destination
D. as a mapping to the DLCI in service internetworking
E. to provide a trunk by which all VLANs can navigate from one site to one or multiple sites
Answer: C

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NO.12 In base e-Commerce module designs, where should firewall perimeters be placed?
A. core layer
B. Internet boundary
C. aggregation layer
D. aggregation and core layers
E. access and aggregation layers
Answer: A

Cisco   642-874 examen   certification 642-874

NO.13 Which virtualization technology allows multiple physical devices to be combined into a single logical
device?
A. device visualization
B. device clustering
C. server visualization
D. network visualization
Answer: B

Cisco   certification 642-874   642-874   642-874

NO.14 Which of the following is true concerning best design practices at the switched Access layer of the
traditional layer2 Enterprise Campus Network?
A. Cisco NSF with SSO and redundant supervisors has the most impact on the campus in the Access
layer
B. Provides host-level redundancy by connecting each end device to 2 separate Access switches
C. Offer default gateway redundancy by using dual connections from Access switches to redundant
Distribution layer switches using a FHRP
D. Include a link between two Access switches to support summarization of routing information
Answer: A

Cisco examen   642-874 examen   642-874   642-874

NO.15 Which two statements are correct regarding Flex Links? (Choose two)
A. An interface can belong to multiple Flex Links.
B. Flex Links operate only over single pairs of links.
C. Flex Link pairs must be of the same interface type
D. Flex Links automatically disable STP so no BPDUs are propagated
E. Failover from active to standby on Flex Links takes less than a second
Answer: B,D

Cisco   642-874   certification 642-874   642-874 examen

NO.16 Which three Layer 2 access designs have all of their uplinks in an active state? (Choose three.)
A. Flex Links
B. loop free U
C. looped square
D. looped triangle
E. loop-tree inverted U
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.17 As a critical part of the design for the Enterprise Campus network, which of the following two are true
concerning intrusion detection and prevention solution? (Choose two)
A. IDS is capable of both inline and promiscuous monitoring, while IPS is only capable of promiscuous
monitoring
B. IDS will stop malicious traffic from reaching its intended target for certain types of attacks.
C. IPS processes information on Layers 3 and 4 as well as analyzing the contents and payload of the
packets for more sophisticated embedded attacks (Layers 3 to 7)
D. IPS inspects traffic statefully and needs to see both sides of the connection to function properly
E. IDS placement at the perimeter of Data Center outside the firewall generates many warnings that have
relatively low value because no action is likely to be taken on this information
Answer: C,D

Cisco   642-874   certification 642-874   642-874 examen   certification 642-874

NO.18 DRAG DROP
Drag the characteristic on the left to the corresponding IPSec VPN solution on the right.
Answer:

NO.19 Why is STP required when VLANs span access layer switches?
A. to ensure a loop-free topology
B. to protect against user-side loops
C. in order to support business applications
D. because of the risk of lost connectivity without STP
E. for the most deterministic and highly available network topology
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which of these technologies is characterized as being a multipoint Layer 2 VPN that connects two or
more customer devices using Ethernet bridging techniques?
A. DPT
B. MPLS
C. VPLS
D. CWDM
E. DWDM
F. SONET/SDH
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 650-261
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (Cisco Unity Connection for Business Edition)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 Which notification method is not available until CUCMBE 6.1?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A.Out dialing
B.Email
C.SMS
D.Paging
Answer: A

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NO.2 Before using the Disaster Recovery System you must configure the location where you want the backup
files stored.
A.True
B.False
Answer:A

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NO.3 Which protocol is used to communicate between Unity Connection and legacy voicemail systems?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. TCP/IP
B. PIMG
C. VPIM
D. H.323
E. MAPI
Answer: C

Cisco   650-261   650-261   650-261 examen   650-261 examen

NO.4 Which of the following features does not come standard with Cisco Unity Connection.?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A.Voice-enabled directory handlers
B.Interview handlers
C.Automated Attendant
D.IMAP
E.Voicemail
Answer: D

Cisco examen   650-261   certification 650-261   certification 650-261

NO.5 Within CUCMBE Unity Connection Administration pages, voicemail user creation is allowed.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 650-295
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (TelePresence Video Sales Specialist for Advanced Exam)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 What is a benefit of the Cisco TelePresence Interoperability Protocol?
A. It allows direct interoperability between CTS and non-CTS devices.
B. It allows for secure traversal of the firewall.
C. It provides for high-definition video, unlike other protocols that only support standard definition.
D. It allows SIP and H.323 to function interchangeably.
Answer: A

Cisco   650-295   650-295 examen   650-295

NO.2 What is a characteristic of Cisco TelePresence interoperability?
A. Interoperability with H.323 endpoints is not supported.
B. Interoperability is supported only with specific video codecs.
C. Interoperability is possible with H.323, SIP, and Skinny client endpoints.
D. In you are in a call with Cisco TelePresence, you must have another Cisco TelePresence endpoint.
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 650-295   650-295 examen   650-295

NO.3 To provide interoperability with proprietary protocols of other companies, you should use the Cisco
Unified Videoconferencing solution in tandem with which product?
A. Cisco TelePresence Multipoint Switch
B. Cisco codec
C. Cisco TelePresence Server 7010
D. Cisco TelePresence Server MSE 8710
Answer: A

certification Cisco   650-295   650-295   certification 650-295

NO.4 When developing an interoperability solution to allow for high-definition video, which Cisco product
would you use.?
A. Cisco Unified Videoconferencing 5000 Series MCUs
B. Cisco C-Series C90 Codec
C. Cisco Unified Videoconferencing 3500 Series MCUs
D. Cisco Unified Videoconferencing 2100 Series MCUs
Answer: B

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NO.5 To provide firewall traversal, which components are needed?
A. 1 Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Control and 2 Cisco TelePresence Video
Communication Server Expressways
B. 2 Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Expressways
C. 1 Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Control and 1 Cisco TelePresence Video
Communication Server Expressway
D. 2 Cisco TelePresence Video Communication Server Controls
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 650-298
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (TelePresence Video Sales Specialist for Advanced Plus Exam)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 How many microphones inputs does the Cisco TelePresence CodecsC90 have?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 12
D. 8
Answer: D

Cisco examen   650-298   650-298   certification 650-298

NO.2 Which of the following is a characteristic of CiscoTelePresenceimmersiveendpoints.?
A. forTelePresenceexperiences inpersonal office, at home for telecommutingapplications
B. good for large deployments with guaranteed quality and consistent user experience
C. devices are optimized for mobility and personal usage from the desktop
D. rooms with optimized and customized environments for face-to-face virtualcommunications
Answer: D

Cisco   650-298   650-298   650-298 examen

NO.3 When we talk about selling along the immersive curve, what do we mean?
A. Toplace point-to-point video conferencing at the center of collaboration architecture.
B. Torecognize that the business use-case determines immersive needs,
andthatimmersiveneedwill determine the product selection.
C. to talk about immersive applications but move the customer to cheaper solutions
D. Todecide for the customer which product is best.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 650-367
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (PSACAS Advanced Collaboration Architecture Sales Specialist Exam)
Questions et réponses: 56 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer wants to offer Cisco Smart Care. Why is it important to have sophisticated management
tools, such as Cisco Monitor Manager or Cisco Monitor Director, to offer this service?
A. These management tools are suited to manage various service contracts from different customers.
B. With sophisticated management tools, you can open cases at Cisco TAC.
C. These management tools enable views into potential problems before they impact a customer ¯ s
business.
D. Cisco Smart Care is a responsive service.
Answer: C

Cisco   650-367   650-367

NO.2 Which two of the following solutions are new with the Cisco Unified Communication 8.5 release.?
(Choose two.) Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. Cisco Enterprise Social Software
B. Cisco Unified Integration for Microsoft Office Communicator
C. Cisco SocialMiner
D. Cisco Media Capture Platform
E. Cisco Visual Voicemail
Answer: A,E

Cisco examen   650-367   650-367

NO.3 Why is the financial manager an integral part of the decision-making process?
A. Cisco TelePresence is personal, multipurpose, and immersive.
B. Cisco TelePresence is a pure, high-end videoconferencing solution.
C. Cisco TelePresence is low-cost video for everyone everywhere.
D. Cisco TelePresence is personal, single-purpose, and immersive.
Answer: A

Cisco   certification 650-367   650-367   650-367

NO.4 In which two ways will a Cisco customer benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program?
(Choose Two)
A. The customer will get immediate support from Cisco TAC.
B. A company can display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with its product offering.
C. The program provides three year of affordable technical support and software enhancements.
D. The program exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions.
E. Companies offering these new business solutions participate in one of five successive levels.
Answer: B,D

Cisco examen   650-367   650-367 examen

NO.5 Which of the following gateways would be most suitable for a customer who is supporting only same
analog phones and fax machines?
A. Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch
B. Cisco AS5800 Universal Gateway
C. Cisco Unified Border Element
D. Cisco VG200 Series Gateways
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 650-153
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (ESFE Cisco Email Security Field Engineer Specialist )
Questions et réponses: 99 Q&As

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NO.1 Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the Add Condition menu which of listed file attachments will be matched.? (Choose two.)
Select exactly 2 answer(s) from the following:
A. pdf attachment
B. A. msi attachment that has had its file extension changed to .pdf
C. A. pdf attachment that has had its file extension changed to .exe.
D. A. exe attachment.
Answer: B,D

Cisco   certification 650-153   650-153   650-153 examen

NO.2 In the C-160's factory default configuration, which interface has ssh enabled by default on the
192J.68.42.42 address?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Data 2
B. Data 1
C. None. SSH must be first enabled through theconsole.
D. Management
Answer: D

certification Cisco   650-153 examen   certification 650-153   650-153   650-153 examen   650-153

NO.3 How can C-Series archived reports be retrieved?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. They cannot be retrieved, since the reporting information is deleted and data is collected for the next
reporting period.
B. Archived reports are retrieved by going to ftp://mgmt.<C-Series host name>.com
C. Archived reports can be retrieved through the GUI by going to: Monitor > Archived Reports
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 650-153   certification 650-153   650-153

NO.4 You have finished installing a C-160 that is designed to filter incoming and relay outgoing mail for the
mail server exchange.bravo.com. This is a one armed installation. For some reason, outgoing mail cannot
be delivered. According to the mail log, what is the most likely problem?
Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. exchange.bravo.com needs to be configured in the RAT
B. exchange.bravo.com needs to be configured on the RELAYLIST
C. An SMTP route needs to be configured for exchange.inside.com
D. The mail server needs to point to a private listener.
E. exchange.bravo.com needs to be removed from the SUSPECTLIST
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following choices shows the GUI menu path for importing a content dictionary to be used in
an Incoming content filter? Select exactly 1 answer(s) from the following:
A. Mail Policies > Dictionaries > Add Dictionary
B. System Administration > Configuration Directory > Import Dictionary
C. Mail Policies > Dictionaries > Import Dictionary
D. Mail Policies > Incoming Mail Policies > Dictionaries > Import Dictionary
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 351-050
Nom d'Examen: Cisco (CCIE Wireless Beta Written Exam)
Questions et réponses: 240 Q&As

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NO.1 You are a network technician . According to the following exhibit, a client configured for LEAP
authentication, a RADIUS server configured for LEAP, and an autonomous AP configured as displayed. If
authentication fails for the client, which is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The client supplicant: This client is providing the wrong EAP-ID in its EAP Identity response.
B. The RADIUS server timeout: This timeout is too short; the access point will wait for theRADIUS server,
then the timer will expire and authentication will fail.
C. The RADIUS server at 192.168.1.22: There is either a RADIUS key mismatch or usercredentials are
not matching on the RADIUS Server.
D. The AP: The AP is misconfigured, because the authentication is set to use the local databaseon the
AP.
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050   351-050 examen   351-050 examen

NO.2 How to describe the radiation pattern of patch and Yagi antennas when viewed from the side (Hplane)?
A. The patch patterns are egg-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
B. The patch patterns are doughnut-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical
C. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are doughnut-shaped
D. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are egg-shaped
Answer: A

Cisco examen   351-050   certification 351-050   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.3 Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP is the name of a protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi
wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system
when an AP's interface goes down and then comes up again?
A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports "Max retransmissionsreached
on AP <name>".
B. The AP sends a linkDown then linkUp trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six trapsdefined in
RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP.
C. The AP cannot send a linkDown trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when thelink comes
back up, the AP sends a linkup trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards thetrap to the Cisco WCS.
D. The Cisco WLC sends a trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP is down.
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050   351-050   351-050

NO.4 It is suggested that you prime or stage your lightweight access points in a convenient location, rather
that after they have been installed in locations that may be difficult to reach. Which three items can be
configured by using the controller CLI, controller GUI, or Cisco WCS while priming a lightweight AP prior
to deployment? (Choose three.)
A. To configure the lightweight access point with primary, secondary, and tertiary controllernames
B. To configure the Controller Mobility Group name, if the lightweight access point is in aController
Mobility Group
C. To configure the access-point-specific LED blink sequence
D. To configure the access-point-specific 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g network settings
Answer: A,B,D

Cisco examen   351-050 examen   certification 351-050   351-050 examen   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.5 A user complains about problems authenticating via wireless. Which two of the Cisco WLC debug
commands below would solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. debug mac { addr MAC}
B. debug client authentication enable
C. debug dot1x events enable
D. debug client events enable
Answer: A,C

Cisco   351-050   certification 351-050   351-050 examen

NO.6 In order to be able to communicate with the WDS master, what must be configured on the APs while
setting up a WLAN for Wireless Domain Services?
A. Username and password valid on the AAA server
B. Multicast group for the WDS
C. Ip address of the master WDS and any backup master WDS
D. Pre-shared key which matches that of the master WDS
Answer: A

Cisco examen   certification 351-050   351-050 examen   351-050 examen   351-050

NO.7 Which description concerning wireless voice traffic is correct?
A. Voice traffic is more latency-sensitive.
B. Wireless voice traffic must be on a dedicated channel apart from wireless data.
C. Wireless voice devices cannot share APs with wireless data NIC cards.
D. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic.
Answer: A

Cisco examen   351-050   351-050   351-050   351-050

NO.8 You work as a network engineer .If the WLAN interfaces configured on the different controllers are on
different IP subnets (Layer 3 inter-controller roaming), can you telle me what will happen when a client
roams from one controller (controller A) to a new controller (controller B)?
A. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as an anchor, controller B will notupdate its
client database because of the anchored entry in controller A, and all ingress andegress traffic will flow
through controller A.
B. Controller A will mark the client with an anchor entry in its client database, the database, andthe
database entry will be copied to controller B and marked with a foreign entry.
C. Controller A will mark the client's entry in its client database as foreign, controller B will updateits client
database, all ingress traffic will flow through controller A, and egress traffic will flowthrough controller B
when symmetric tunneling is disabled.
D. Controller B will update its client database and all client ingress and egress traffic will transitionto the
new controller.
Answer: B

Cisco   certification 351-050   certification 351-050   351-050 examen

NO.9 Tom works as a network administrator for a company. He is asked to manually configure the Tx power
on an 802.11b access point to a power level of 1 (100 mW) after implementing a Cisco 7921G wireless IP
phone within a Cisco Unified Wireless Network. Which problem is the user likely to experience when the
phone associates to the AP?
A. One-way audio
B. Loss of connectivity to Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. Audio delay or jitter or both
D. The phone displays a "network busy" status message
Answer: A

certification Cisco   351-050   351-050 examen

NO.10 For the following commands, which one can determine the health of a RADIUS server on an
autonomous AP?
A. show radius statistics
B. debug radius-server
C. show radius table {server_ip}
D. show radius-server {server_ip}
Answer: A

certification Cisco   351-050   351-050 examen

NO.11 Which two actions will happen when a wireless client deploys a Layer 2 roam between two WLCs with
management IP addresses on different IP subnets but dynamic interfaces in the same VLAN? (Choose
two.)
A. The new WLC exchanges mobility messages with the original WLC and the client databaseentry is
moved to the new WLC.
B. The client database entry is maintained on both the original and new WLCs.
C. The original WLC marks the client with an "Anchor" entry in its own client database.
D. The client database entry is removed from the original WLC once it has been entered into thenew
WLC.
Answer: A,D

Cisco   351-050   351-050   351-050   certification 351-050

NO.12 Which is the objective of a radome?
A. To reduce the mechanical load from wind
B. To indicate which way the antenna is pointing
C. To increase the gain of an antenna
D. To mitigate interference
Answer: A

Cisco examen   351-050   351-050   certification 351-050   351-050 examen

NO.13 802.11i is a forthcoming specification that will clear up a number of security problems in 802.11. For
the following items, which 802.11i key can provide data origin authenticity during the four-way handshake
and the group key handshake messages?
A. Key Caching Key
B. Key Encryption Key
C. Groupwise Master Key
D. Key Confirmation Key
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050   certification 351-050   351-050 examen   351-050

NO.14 Which three options are true when an H-REAP AP is in the "authentication down/local switching" state
for a given WLAN? (Choose three.)
A. New WebAuth sessions are permitted.
B. The AP continues to send beacon probes and responses to keep current clients connected.
C. 802.11 roaming events incur a full 802.1X re-authentication.
D. Any new clients trying to authenticate are rejected.
Answer: B,C,D

certification Cisco   351-050 examen   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.15 What is the reason that using a tool like Cisco Spectrum Expert is important?
A. It maps the RF area to a floor plan.
B. It allows you to detect multipath.
C. It allows you to see the radiating environment at Layer 1.
D. It decodes WLAN IPS attacks
Answer: C

Cisco   351-050 examen   351-050   351-050

NO.16 Refer to the following options, which two are long-term solutions to hidden node problems? (Choose
two.)
A. Enable CTS to Self
B. Change the RF situation by increasing the power on client work stations (None-AP-STA)
C. Increase the radio speed to at least 24 Mb/s
D. Change the RF situation by adding additional access points
Answer: B,D

certification Cisco   351-050 examen   351-050   351-050

NO.17 A VoWLAN user reports bad voice quality. Which three items most likely cause this problem? (Choose
three.)
A. Round trip delay is greater than 150 ms
B. Packet loss is greater than 1%
C. Jitter is greater than 30 ms
D. One-way delay is greater than 150 ms
Answer: B,C,D

certification Cisco   certification 351-050   351-050 examen   351-050 examen

NO.18 Which two options are correct according to debug output presented in the following exhibit? (Choose
two.)
A. The wireless client uses a static IP address, so "0.0.0.0 START (0)" can be found in the logs.
B. The wireless client has been successfully authenticated. Reauthentication is set to occur on
anextremely aggressive schedule (every five seconds).
C. The wireless client "hangs" in probes (does not proceed with 802.11 authentication andassociation). It
is likely that the "encryption" or "key-management" advertised in the proberesponse does not match.
D. Since the AP receives a probe request from the wireless client, the Access Point Functionsstate for the
machine changes from "Idle" to "Probe."
Answer: C,D

Cisco   351-050 examen   351-050   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.19 Study the following situations carefully, then answer my question. Wireless client (CB21) configured for
SSID "CCIE-2"; IP address "dhcp". Configure standalone authonomous AP with three SSIDs and three
data VLANs plus the native VLAN. AAA server IP ranges:
VLAN-2:10.20.1.1.100-10.20.1.128 VLAN-3:10.30.1.1.100-10.30.1.128
VLAN-4:10.40.1.1.100-10.40.1.128
The user wants to get an IP address from VLAN-2 which is mapped to the SSID CCIE-2 the client is
associating. Why does this wireless client get a wrong IP address?
A. LEAP authentication fails due to wrong password or unknown username, therefore thewirelessclient is
mapped to the default VLAN.
B. The RADIUS server is not reachable from the AP, therefore the wireless client is mapped tothe default
VLAN.
C. LEAP needs "network-eap" <eap_methods> on the SSID. You must not configure "open
eap"<eap_methods.>
D. The RADIUS server assigned VLAN-4 during authentication/authorization process.
Answer: D

Cisco examen   351-050   certification 351-050

NO.20 Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS? (Choose two.)
A. When the transmitted packet is equal to or larger than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet issent. The
destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send thereal data packet.
B. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has beenrendered
unnecessary.
C. 802.11d replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to Self.
D. The RTS and CTS are small and, if lost in a collision, they can be retried more quickly and withless
overhead than if the whole packet must be retried.
Answer: A,D

Cisco examen   351-050   351-050

NO.21 The following message can be seen on a Cisco WCS:
AP 'floor-1-lobby', interface '802.11b/g' on Controller '10.1.1.1'. Noise threshold violated.
There is also a correlation between the occurrence of the message and user complaints. Which action
should you take?
A. Check the logs for rogues in the area, then turn on rogue mitigation.
B. Seek out the source of the noise with a spectrum analyzer.
C. Manually increase the power of the AP to overcome the interference.
D. Increase the interference threshold from the default 10%.
Answer: B

Cisco examen   certification 351-050   certification 351-050   351-050 examen   351-050   351-050 examen

NO.22 Can you tell me what the LWAPP data and control port numbers are?
A. TCP 16666 and 16667
B. UDP 16666 and 16667
C. TCP 12124 and 12134
D. UDP 12222 and 12223
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050   351-050   351-050

NO.23 You work as a network technician at Company.com, read this subject carefully ,then answer the
question. The existing Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code for both the controllers and
the Cisco WCS. A controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report
discovered APs to the Cisco WCS. What default alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm
Summary?
A. Major
B. Critical
C. Flash
D. Minor
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.24 Observe the following options carefully, which functionality, as defined by IEEE 802.11e, does WWM
certify as part of the tests for QoS done by the WiFi Alliance?
A. EDCA
B. HCCA
C. Direct Link Setup
D. S-APSD
Answer: A

certification Cisco   351-050   351-050   351-050

NO.25 How do the characteristics that are available on the Cisco WCS for Linux version differ from those of
the Cisco WCS for Windows version?
A. Cisco WCS for Linux is required for deployments.
B. Assuming that there are no differences in hardware, a Cisco WCS for Linux can support up to750
wireless LAN controllers. A Cisco WCS for Windows can support up to 250 wireless LANcontrollers.
C. Cisco WCS for Windows includes support for Cisco Spectrum Expert clients. Cisco WCS forLinux does
not support Cisco Spectrum Expert clients.
D. There are no differences in features between the Linux and Windows versions of Cisco WCS.
Answer: D

Cisco   certification 351-050   351-050   351-050 examen

NO.26 The central office is currently using a combination of 4400 and 2100 series WLAN controllers running
v4.2 and a variety of LWAPP-enabled access points servicing both 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz. The WLAN
deployment has been extended to each remote office by implementing a 526 WLAN controller running
v4.1 and several 521 access points. Wireless client deployment uses EAP-TLS authentication by use of a
centralized RADIUS server plus 802.11n for performance. After the first remote office deployment, remote
office users complain that they are not connecting via 802.11n. Which will most likely cause this problem?
A. The 521 AP does not support 5 GHz, which prohibits 802.11n.
B. The 521 AP and 526 WLAN controllers do not support AES, which prohibits 802.11n.
C. The 526 WLAN controller does not support external authentication via RADIUS,
prohibitingauthentication.
D. The 526 WLAN controller does not support 802.11n with either v4.1 or v4.2.
Answer: D

Cisco   351-050 examen   351-050 examen   351-050   351-050   351-050 examen

NO.27 Observe the following statements, which limitation applies to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution
Management over Wireless feature?
A. Read-write access is not available; only read-only access is supported.
B. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS), notnonsecure
protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet).
C. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed.
D. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP towhich the
client is associated.
Answer: C

Cisco   certification 351-050   351-050   351-050 examen   351-050 examen

NO.28 Do you know at what distance the curve of the earth factors into the antenna elevation calculation?
A. Greater than 6 miles (~10 km)
B. 60% of the Fresnel zone
C. Greater than 26 miles (~42 km)
D. The width of the Fresnel zone, which varies depending on the distance by which the bridgesare
separated
Answer: A

Cisco examen   351-050   certification 351-050   certification 351-050   351-050

NO.29 Cisco Client Management Frame Protection is running on a mobility group with two controllers. For the
following options ,which two MFP requirements protect the network?
(Choose two.)
A. Requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID
B. Requires CCXv5
C. Implements the validation of wireless management frames
D. Forces clients to authenticate, using a secure EAP method only
Answer: B,C

Cisco   certification 351-050   certification 351-050   351-050   351-050

NO.30 In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a
local subnet, which action will AP take next?
A. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known.
B. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational.
C. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet.
D. Determine whether the controller responses are the primary controller.
Answer: B

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