2014年3月31日星期一

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Code d'Examen: S90-04A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Project Delivery & Methodology)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to start building
services before completing our top-down analysis.
B. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to complete our
service inventory blueprint before delivering our services.
C. We delivered the project using a meet-in-the-middle approach, which allowed us to bypass up-front
analysis altogether so that we could build our services in the shortest possible timeframe.
D. None of these statements make sense.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The Inventory Management System project is delivering a modest solution comprised of three services.
The project team is following a bottom-up approach whereby service developers are building the services
to fulfill tactical (short-term) requirements. Although not everyone agrees with this approach, it does
actually directly support the following service-oriented computing goal:
A. Increased Intrinsic Interoperability
B. Increased Business and Technology Alignment
C. Increased Federation
D. None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.3 In a service-oriented analysis process, business and technology experts are encouraged to
collaborate hands-on so that they can jointly model service candidates.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following tends to be the most expensive and time consuming project delivery strategy?
A. bottom-up
B. top-down
C. meet-in-the-middle
D. round-about
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following statements makes sense?
A. The bottom-up approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
B. The top-down approach is tactical (short-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
C. The bottom-up approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort
be carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
D. The top-down approach is strategic (long-term) and therefore advocates that up-front analysis effort be
carried out before the service inventory blueprint is finalized.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Top-down approaches typically ____________ the long-term governance burden of services.
A. increase
B. decrease
C. eliminate
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which of the following statements is true?
A. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach allows an on-going top-down analysis to occur while
services are designed and delivered. The only requirement is that delivered services eventually be
updated to be kept in alignment with the results of the top-down analysis.
B. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the bottom-up approach in that it
allows services to be delivered without up-front analysis. The only difference is that the
meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of object-orientation principles instead of
service-orientation principles.
C. The meet-in-the-middle delivery approach is essentially based on the top-down approach in that it
allows services to be delivered after the completion of the top-down analysis. The only difference is that
the meet-in-the-middle approach advocates the use of people that act as mediators who ensure that
business analysts and technology architects can collaborate harmoniously.
D. None of these statements are true.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Bottom-up delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements while top-down
delivery is generally focused on fulfilling ____________ requirements.
A. tactical (short-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), strategic (long-term)
C. tactical (short-term), strategic (long-term)
D. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
Answer: C

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NO.9 Two service delivery projects are being carried out concurrently. Each project has its own project team.
Even though both projects are delivering services for the same service inventory, each project team is
given complete independence as to how services are designed and developed and what design
standards are to be used. Which of the following statements describes a likely consequence of this
approach.?
A. The service inventory will be comprised of services that comply to different design standards and these
services will therefore not be compatible or interoperable.
B. Services with redundant and overlapping logic may be delivered because no effort was made to
coordinate the delivery of the services between the two projects.
C. One project team may decide to follow a top-down delivery approach, whereas the other project team
may follow a bottom-up delivery approach.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.10 SOA projects introduce new considerations that tend to augment the traditional project lifecycle as
follows:
A. they tend to introduce the need for more up-front analysis effort
B. they tend to require closer collaboration between business and technology experts
C. they tend to require a careful prioritization of tactical (short-term) and strategic (long-term)
requirements
D. they tend to introduce new project roles
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.11 The primary deliverable of the service inventory analysis is a ____________ of the service inventory.
A. blueprint
B. contract
C. composition architecture
D. legend
Answer: A

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NO.12 The Claims Solution project is responsible for delivering a service composition comprised of seven
services. The project team is following a meet-in-the-middle approach whereby a service analyst and two
service architects will continue carrying out a top-down analysis effort after the initial set of services is
designed and developed. What will happen after the top-down analysis completes and the final service
candidates are noticeably different from the services that have already been delivered?
A. The previously delivered services remain in use until they can no longer fulfill their functional
requirements, at which point they are retired and replaced with new services based on the final service
candidates.
B. The previously delivered services are later redesigned and redeveloped as per the final service
candidates in order to bring the services in the Claims Solution in alignment with the target service
inventory blueprint.
C. The previously delivered services are not changed and the final service candidates serve as a constant
reminder as to how they should have been designed.
D. None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.13 An SOA project carried out with a top-down approach can contain phases that require the completion
of the following tasks:
A. development of services
B. design of services
C. analysis of services
D. testing of services
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.14 A service candidate is:
A. a conceptual service
B. a proposed service that may not yet physically exist
C. a modeled service produced via a service modeling process
D. a modeled service that initially acts as the starting point for the physical design of the service
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is false?
A. With the bottom-up approach, services are built on an "as need" basis and are modeled to encapsulate
application logic to best serve the immediate requirements of the solution.
B. The bottom-up approach is often motivated by integration needs that may require establishing
point-to-point integration channels between legacy systems.
C. The bottom-up approach is focused primarily on maximizing service reuse. Therefore, special attention
is paid to the documentation of service profile information that is used to create complete service catalog
entries.
D. The bottom-up approach can result in the creation of hybrid services that contain a mix of logic from
different sources.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: C90-05A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Advance Cloud Architecture - C90.05)
Questions et réponses: 50 Q&As

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NO.1 The application of the _____________pattern results in a dynamic vertical scaling system
that uses the _____________program to move LUNs to cloud storage devices of higher capacity.
A. Cross-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, LUN migration
B. Intra-Storage Device Vertical Tiering, storage replication
C. Shared Resources, rapid provisioning
D. Noneoftheabove.
Answer: A

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NO.2 The application of the Elastic Resource Capacity pattern results in a system that can
dynamically allocate and reclaim __________________ and __________________ for virtual
servers, in response to fluctuating processing requirements.
A. RAM memory, CPUs
B. storage capacity, LUN5
C. virtual switches, uplinks
D. load balanced IT resources, clustered IT resources
Answer: A

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NO.3 The application of the Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern can result in a system that uses
link aggregation to balance network traffic.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.4 A load balancing system is established after the Load Balanced Virtual Switches pattern is
applied. This system uses _____________to balance workloads across multiple uplinks
simultaneously, to prevent network cards from overloading.
A. Load Balanced Virtual Switches, link aggregation
B. Load Balanced Virtual Server Instances, secondary uplinks
C. Workload Distribution, virtual switch replication
D. Service Load Balancing, cloud service replication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following statements about the system that is established by the application of
the Redundant Physical Connection for Virtual Servers pattern are true? (Choose Three)
A. The system can establish multiple redundant uplink connections.
B. The system can prevent cloud consumers from losing connectivity to virtual servers.
C. The system regulates the bandwidth that is allocated to individual uplink connections.
D. The system places redundant uplink connections in standby mode.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 The system established by applying the Elastic Network Capacity pattern ensures that
individual cloud consumer __________________ are isolated, and that each cloud consumer is
using its own set of __________________.
A. virtual servers, physical uplinks
B. cloud storage devices, virtual switches
C. traffic workflows, network ports
D. hypervisors, network switches
Answer: C

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NO.7 In a cloud architecture resulting from the application of the Cloud Bursting compound pattern,
the _________________ mechanism is used to maintain synchronizing between a cloud consumer's
on-premise and cloud-based IT resources.
A. hypervisor
B. resource pooling
C. automated scaling listener
D. resource replication
Answer: D

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NO.8 Applying the Dynamic Failure Detection and Recovery pattern establishes a
_____________that can monitor and respond to runtime failure conditions.
A. Watchdog system
B. Capacityplanner system
C. Failover system C D.Intelligent automation engine
Answer: A

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NO.9 The system that results from the application of the Elastic Disk Provisioning pattern uses the
thin-provisioning program to create virtual server disks.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 The system that is established by the application of the Dynamic Failure Detection and
Recovery pattern can address which of the following issues: (Choose Three)
A. cloud-based bare-metal physical servers need to be provisioned with operating systems
B. cloud-based IT resources encountering runtime failure conditions require intervention
C. the manual process to solve cloud-based IT resource failure is too slow
D. the manual recovery of IT resources leads to additional failures
Answer: B,C,D

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Code d'Examen: GCFA
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Forensics Analyst)
Questions et réponses: 318 Q&As

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NO.1 You company suspects an employee of sending unauthorized emails to competitors. These emails are
alleged to contain confidential company data. Which of the following is the most important step for you to
take in preserving the chain of custody?
A. Preserve the email server including all logs.
B. Make copies of that employee's email.
C. Seize the employee's PC.
D. Place spyware on the employee's PC to confirm these activities.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. The network is configured on IP version 6 protocol. All the computers on the network are
connected to a switch device. One day, users complain that they are unable to connect to a file server.
You try to ping the client computers from the server, but the pinging fails. You try to ping the server's own
loopback address, but it fails to ping. You restart the server, but the problem persists.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The cable that connects the server to the switch is broken.
B. Automatic IP addressing is not working.
C. The switch device is not working.
D. The server is configured with unspecified IP address.
E. The server's NIC is not working.
Answer: E

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NO.3 Mark works as a security manager for SofTech Inc. He is using a technique for monitoring what the
employees are doing with corporate resources. Which of the following techniques is being used by Mark
to gather evidence of an ongoing computer crime if a member of the staff is e-mailing company's secrets
to an opponent?
A. Electronic surveillance
B. Civil investigation
C. Physical surveillance
D. Criminal investigation
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is the process of overwriting all addressable locations on a disk?
A. Drive wiping
B. Spoofing
C. Sanitization
D. Authentication
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following modules of OS X kernel (XNU) provides the primary system program interface?
A. BSD
B. LIBKERN
C. I/O Toolkit
D. Mach
Answer: A

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NO.6 Fill in the blank with the appropriate name.
_____is a list, which specifies the order of volatility of data in a Windows based system.
A. RFC 3227
Answer: A

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NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for Blue Bell Inc. You want to install Windows XP
Professional on your computer, which already has Windows Me installed. You want to configure your
computer to dual boot between Windows Me and Windows XP Professional. You have a single 40GB
hard disk.
Which of the following file systems will you choose to dual-boot between the two operating
systems?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. CDFS
D. FAT
Answer: B

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NO.8 Adam, a malicious hacker has successfully gained unauthorized access to the Linux system of
Umbrella Inc. Web server of the company runs on Apache. He has downloaded sensitive documents and
database files from the computer. After performing these malicious tasks, Adam finally runs the following
command on the Linux command box before disconnecting. for (( i =
0;i<11;i++ )); do
dd if=/dev/random of=/dev/hda && dd if=/dev/zero of=/dev/hda done
Which of the following actions does Adam want to perform by the above command?
A. Making a bit stream copy of the entire hard disk for later download.
B. Deleting all log files present on the system.
C. Wiping the contents of the hard disk with zeros.
D. Infecting the hard disk with polymorphic virus strings.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A firewall is a combination of hardware and software, used to provide security to a network. It is used
to protect an internal network or intranet against unauthorized access from the Internet or other outside
networks. It restricts inbound and outbound access and can analyze all traffic between an internal
network and the Internet. Users can configure a firewall to pass or block packets from specific IP
addresses and ports. Which of the following tools works as a firewall for the Linux 2.4 kernel?
A. OpenSSH
B. IPTables
C. IPChains
D. Stunnel
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which of the following tools can be used to perform tasks such as Windows password cracking,
Windows enumeration, and VoIP session sniffing?
A. John the Ripper
B. L0phtcrack
C. Obiwan
D. Cain
Answer: D

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NO.11 You work as a Web developer for ABC Inc. You want to investigate the Cross-Site Scripting attack on
your company's Web site. Which of the following methods of investigation can you use to accomplish the
task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Review the source of any HTML-formatted e-mail messages for embedded scripts or links in the URL
to the company's site.
B. Look at the Web server's logs and normal traffic logging.
C. Use Wireshark to capture traffic going to the server and then searching for the requests going to the
input page, which may give log of the malicious traffic and the IP address of the source.
D. Use a Web proxy to view the Web server transactions in real time and investigate any
communication with outside servers.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.12 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He receives the following e-mail:
The e-mail that John has received is an example of __________.
A. Virus hoaxes
B. Spambots
C. Social engineering attacks
D. Chain letters
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. Melissa
B. Tequila
C. Brain
D. I love you
Answer: C

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NO.14 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted.?
A. Trademark law
B. Cyber law
C. Copyright law
D. Espionage law
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following attacks saturates network resources and disrupts services to a specific
computer?
A. Teardrop attack
B. Polymorphic shell code attack
C. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following type of file systems is not supported by Linux kernel?
A. vFAT
B. NTFS
C. HFS
D. FAT32
Answer: D

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NO.17 Adam works as a Security Administrator for Umbrella Inc. He is responsible for securing all 15 servers
of the company. To successfully accomplish the task, he enables the hardware and software firewalls and
disables all unnecessary services on all the servers. Sales manager of the company asks Adam to run
emulation software on one of the servers that requires the telnet service to function properly. Adam is
concerned about the security of the server, as telnet can be a very large security risk in an organization.
Adam decides to perform some footprinting, scanning, and penetration testing on the server to checkon
the server to check the security. Adam telnets into the server and writes the following command:
HEAD / HTTP/1.0
After pressing enter twice, Adam gets the following results:
Which of the following tasks has Adam just accomplished?
A. Poisoned the local DNS cache of the server.
B. Submitted a remote command to crash the server.
C. Grabbed the banner.
D. Downloaded a file to his local computer.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following encryption methods uses AES technology?
A. Dynamic WEP
B. Static WEP
C. TKIP
D. CCMP
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following methods is used by forensic investigators to acquire an image over the network
in a secure manner?
A. DOS boot disk
B. Linux Live CD
C. Secure Authentication for EnCase (SAFE)
D. EnCase with a hardware write blocker
Answer: C

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NO.20 Adam works as an Incident Handler for Umbrella Inc. He is informed by the senior authorities that the
server of the marketing department has been affected by a malicious hacking attack. Supervisors are also
claiming that some sensitive data are also stolen. Adam immediately arrived to the server room of the
marketing department and identified the event as an incident. He isolated the infected network from the
remaining part of the network and started preparing to image the entire system. He captures volatile data,
such as running process, ram, and network connections.
Which of the following steps of the incident handling process is being performed by Adam?
A. Recovery
B. Eradication
C. Identification
D. Containment
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of the following file systems provides file-level security?
A. CDFS
B. FAT
C. FAT32
D. NTFS
Answer: D

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NO.22 TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the
target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker
and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port
will drop the packet. Which of the following operating systems can be easily identified with the help of TCP
FIN scanning?
A. Solaris
B. Red Hat
C. Knoppix
D. Windows
Answer: D

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NO.23 Peter works as a Technical Representative in a CSIRT for SecureEnet Inc. His team is called to
investigate the computer of an employee, who is suspected for classified data theft. Suspect's computer
runs on Windows operating system. Peter wants to collect data and evidences for further analysis. He
knows that in Windows operating system, the data is searched in pre-defined steps for proper and
efficient analysis. Which of the following is the correct order for searching data on a Windows based
system?
A. Volatile data, file slack, registry, memory dumps, file system, system state backup, internet traces
B. Volatile data, file slack, registry, system state backup, internet traces, file system, memory dumps
C. Volatile data, file slack, internet traces, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, file system
D. Volatile data, file slack, file system, registry, memory dumps, system state backup, internet traces
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following is the correct order of loading system files into the main memory of the system,
when the computer is running on Microsoft's Windows XP operating system?
A. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
B. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, NTDETECT.com, HAL.dll, NTOSKRNL.exe
C. NTLDR, BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTOSKRNL.exe
D. BOOT.ini, HAL.dll, NTDETECT.com, NTLDR, NTOSKRNL.exe
Answer: B

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NO.25 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. You install Windows 98 on a computer.
By default, which of the following folders does Windows 98 setup use to keep the registry tools?
A. $SYSTEMROOT$REGISTRY
B. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWS
C. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSREGISTRY
D. $SYSTEMROOT$WINDOWSSYSTEM32
Answer: B

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NO.26 You work as a professional Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for DataEnet Inc. You want to
investigate e-mail information of an employee of the company. The suspected employee is using an
online e-mail system such as Hotmail or Yahoo. Which of the following folders on the local computer will
you review to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. History folder
B. Temporary Internet Folder
C. Download folder
D. Cookies folder
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.27 Which of the following Acts enacted in United States allows the FBI to issue National Security Letters
(NSLs) to Internet service providers (ISPs) ordering them to disclose records about their customers?
A. Wiretap Act
B. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act
C. Economic Espionage Act of 1996
D. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986
Answer: D

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NO.28 You want to upgrade a partition in your computer's hard disk drive from FAT to NTFS. Which of the
following DOS commands will you use to accomplish this?
A. FORMAT C: /s
B. CONVERT C: /fs:ntfs
C. SYS C:
D. FDISK /mbr
Answer: B

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NO.29 The MBR of a hard disk is a collection of boot records that contain disk information such as disk
architecture, cluster size, and so on. The main work of the MBR is to locate and run necessary operating
system files that are required to run a hard disk. In the context of the operating system,
MBR is also known as the boot loader. Which of the following viruses can infect the MBR of a hard disk?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Stealth
B. Boot sector
C. Multipartite
D. File
Answer: B,C

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NO.30 An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a
trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started
shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. Bluesnarfing
C. PDA Hijacking
D. Privilege Escalation
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: GISP
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Professional)
Questions et réponses: 659 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure TELNET session over TCP/IP?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. IPSEC
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about Digest authentication are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as clear text, rather than as a has value.
B. Digest authentication is used by wireless LANs, which follow the IEEE 802.11 standard.
C. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as a hash value, rather than as clear
text.
D. Digest authentication is a more secure authentication method as compared to Basic authentication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements about role-based access control (RBAC) model is true?
A. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization.
B. In this model, the permissions are uniquely assigned to each user account.
C. In this model, the same permission is assigned to each user account.
D. In this model, the users can access resources according to their seniority.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D

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NO.5 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a network that consists of 200
client computers and ten database servers. One morning, you find that a hacker is accessing
unauthorized data on a database server on the network. Which of the following actions will you take to
preserve the evidences?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Prevent a forensics experts team from entering the server room.
B. Preserve the log files for a forensics expert.
C. Prevent the company employees from entering the server room.
D. Detach the network cable from the database server.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Install a RAID system
B. Use data encryption
C. Install and use a tape backup unit
D. Install UPS systems on all important devices
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which of the following statements about a fiber-optic cable are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
B. It can transmit undistorted signals over great distances.
C. It has eight wires twisted into four pairs.
D. It uses light pulses for signal transmission.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.9 Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about smurf is true?
A. It is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
B. It is a UDP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
C. It is a denial of service (DoS) attack that leaves TCP ports open.
D. It is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following functions are performed by a firewall?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It hides vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.
B. It logs traffic to and from the private network.
C. It enhances security through various methods, including packet filtering, circuit-level filtering, and
application filtering.
D. It blocks unwanted traffic.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following steps can be taken to protect laptops and data they hold?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use slot locks with cable to connect the laptop to a stationary object.
B. Keep inventory of all laptops including serial numbers.
C. Harden the operating system.
D. Encrypt all sensitive data.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.13 Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
A. Auditing
B. Recovery
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following are used to suppress paper or wood fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Water
B. Kerosene
C. CO2
D. Soda acid
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the most secure authentication method?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Integrated Windows authentication
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following types of attacks slows down or stops a server by overloading it with requests?
A. Vulnerability attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Network attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following statements about DMZ are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
B. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP
servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).
Answer: B,C

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NO.18 Which of the following is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack?
A. Updating the anti-virus software regularly.
B. Taking daily backup of data.
C. Using strong passwords to log on to the network.
D. Implementing a firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a logical connection between two devices.
B. It uses fixed-length (53-byte) packets to transmit information.
C. It supports speeds of 1.544 Mbps over Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) transmission facilities.
D. It is a high-speed WAN networking technology used for communication over public data networks
Answer: C,D

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NO.20 Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 3 to 4 feet
B. 2 to 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 6 to 7 feet
Answer: A

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NO.21 When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known
as __________.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True negative
D. True positive
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following statements about the bridge are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It filters traffic based on IP addresses.
B. It forwards broadcast packets.
C. It assigns a different network address per port.
D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.23 Which of the following protocols is used to verify the status of a certificate?
A. CEP
B. HTTP
C. OSPF
D. OCSP
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following attacks involves multiple compromised systems to attack a single target?
A. Brute force attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B

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NO.25 Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web
browser receives information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser
settings will Sam use to accomplish this?
A. Proxy server
B. Security
C. Cookies
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.26 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following policies is set by a network administrator to allow users to keep their emails and
documents for a fixed period of time?
A. Retention policy
B. Password policy
C. Audit policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: A

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NO.28 Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) are case sensitive text strings that have a maximum length of_______
characters.
A. 32
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following is a remote access protocol that supports encryption?
A. PPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SLIP
Answer: A

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NO.30 Which of the following refers to encrypted text.?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: G2700
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified ISO-2700 Specialist Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 453 Q&As

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NO.1 Qualitative risk analysis includes judgment, intuition, and experience. Which of the following methods
are used to perform qualitative risk analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Egress filtering
B. Checklists
C. Delphi technique
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 Which of the following are the uses of cryptography as defined in a policy document?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Backup
B. Control of keys
C. Applications supporting cryptography
D. Recovery
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following is a Restrict Anonymous registry value that allows users with explicit
anonymous permissions?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: A

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NO.4 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to make the
documentation on change management. What are the advantages of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Improved productivity of users due to more stable and better IT services
B. Improved IT personnel productivity, since there is a reduced number of urgent changes and a back-out
of erroneous changes
C. Improved adverse impact of changes on the quality of IT services
D. Increased ability to absorb frequent changes without making an unstable IT environment
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.5 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
________ is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot.
Answer: Honeyd

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NO.6 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the
documentation of control A.10.1.1. What is the purpose of control A.10.1.1.?
A. It is concerned with the documentation of the human resource security to make recruitments clear to
the organization.
B. It is concerned with the documentation of the supply chain management.
C. It is concerned with the documentation of operating procedures to ensure the correct and secure use of
information processing facilities.
D. It is concerned with the documentation of the disaster recovery management to ensure proper backup
technologies.
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on communication and
organization management. You need to create the documentation on change management.
Which of the following are the main objectives of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Minimal disruption of services
B. Reduction of inventory in accordance with revenue
C. Economic utilization of resources involved in the change
D. Reduction in back-out activities
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.8 Which of the following is the designing phase of the ISMS?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Act
D. Do
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements are true about security risks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
B. These can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
C. These can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D. These can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.10 The disciplined and structured process, that integrates information security and risk management
activities into the System Development Life Cycle, is provided by the risk management framework.
Choose the appropriate RMF steps.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You work as the Human Resource Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to recruit some candidates for
the marketing department of the organization. Which of the following should be defined to the new
employees of the organization before they have joined?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Marketing tips and tricks
B. Organization's network topology
C. Job roles
D. Organization's security policy
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. ATM
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. SET
Answer: D

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NO.13 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. The organization has constructed a cafeteria for
their employees and you are responsible to select the access control method for the cafeteria.
There are a few conditions for giving access to the employees, which are as follows:
1. Top level management can get access any time.
2. Staff members can get access during the specified hours.
3. Guests can get access only in working hours.
Which of the following access control methods is suitable to accomplish the task?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Lattice-based access control
C. Attribute-based access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: D

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NO.14 Mark works as an Office Assistant for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for managing office documents.
Today, after opening a word document, Mark noticed that the other opened documents are closed
suddenly. After reopening those documents, Mark found some modifications in the documents. He
contacted his Security Administrator and came to know that there is a virus program installed in the
operating system. Which of the following types of virus has attacked the operating system?
A. Data file
B. Macro
C. Polymorphic
D. Boot sector
Answer: A

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NO.15 Mark works as a System Administrator for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for securing the network of
the organization. He is configuring some of the advanced features of the Windows firewall so that he can
block the client machine from responding to pings. Which of the following advanced setting types should
Mark change for accomplishing the task?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following should be considered while calculating the costs of the outage?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Sales aspect of the business
B. Cost of low productivity
C. Innovations in electronic funds transfer
D. Cost of lost income from missed sales
Answer: B,D

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NO.17 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. An employee of the organization
comes to Mark and tells him that a few months ago, the employee had filled an online bank form due to
some account related work. Today, when again visiting the site, the employee finds that some of his
personal information is still being displayed in the webpage. Which of the following types of cookies
should be disabled by Mark to resolve the issue?
A. Session
B. Temporary
C. Secure
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.18 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the
following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A

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NO.19 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. He has been assigned the task of
installing a MySQL server. Mark wants to monitor only the data that is directed to or originating from the
server and he also wants to monitor running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins
for identifying malicious activities. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques will Mark use to
accomplish the task?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Host-based IDS
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following are the exceptions of the Data Protection Act?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Section 36 - Domestic purposes
B. Section 28 - National security
C. Section 55 - Unlawful obtaining of personal data
D. Section 29 - Crime and taxation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 You work as an Information Security Officer for uCertify Inc. You need to create an asset management
plan differentiating fixed assets from inventory items. How will you differentiate assets from inventory
items?
A. Inventory items are sold.
B. Assets are temporary usually.
C. Inventory items are permanent.
D. Assets cannot be used.
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following is a fast-emerging global sector that advises individuals and corporations on
how to apply the highest ethical standards to every aspect of their business?
A. Service Capacity Management (SCM)
B. Business Capacity Management (BCM)
C. Resource Capacity Management (RCM)
D. Integrity Management Consulting
Answer: D

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NO.23 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. You have been assigned the task to verify the
identity of the employees recruited in your organization. Which of the following components of security
deals with an employee's verification in the organization?
A. Network Security
B. Physical security
C. Access security
D. Human resource security
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following administrative policy controls is usually associated with government
classifications of materials and the clearances of individuals to access those materials?
A. Separation of Duties
B. Due Care
C. Acceptable Use
D. Need to Know
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following are the basics of Business Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implementation of a risk assessment technique to identify the causes and consequences of failures
B. Regular checking of business continuity plans
C. Identification of authentication techniques according to the requirements
D. Identification of human resources according to the requirements
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.26 Which of the following phases of the PDCA model is the monitoring and controlling phase of the
Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act
Answer: A

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NO.27 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________accord describes the minimum regulatory capital to be allocated by each bank based on its
risk profile of assets.
Answer: Basel ll

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NO.28 Which of the following controls are administrative in nature?
A. Directive controls
B. Recovery controls
C. Preventive controls
D. Detective controls
Answer: A

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NO.29 Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some
confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone
is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other
networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files
that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography
technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Linguistic steganography
B. Text Semagrams
C. Technical steganography
D. Perceptual masking
Answer: A,B

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NO.30 A project plan includes the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and cost estimates. Which of the following
are the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Security Threat
C. Project schedule
D. Team members list
E. Risk analysis
Answer: A,C,D,E

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Code d'Examen: adwords-search
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Search Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 235 Q&As

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NO.1 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. ("Iron Man")
B. {Iron Man}
C. +["Iron Man"]
D. -[Iron Man]
Answer: D

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NO.2 Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the
evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she'd like to optimize her ad for
conversion.
D. Google won't automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
Answer: B

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NO.3 Ronnie has created an image ad for her design business. When she searches Google, however, she's
not seeing the image ad displayed in the search results' sponsored links. Ronnie then creates a text ad for
Google, and this ad shows up in the results. She then deletes the text ad and actives the image ad again -
which still doesn't show in the Google search results' sponsored links, like the other ads. Why do you
suspect that the image ad isn't showing in the Google Search results as part of the other ads?
A. Her image ad will only appear in the Google Content Network, not in Google Search.
B. Her image ad must first be approved by Google before it'll show in the Google Search resul ts.
C. Her image is probably in a .gif format; images must be in a .jpg format.
D. Her image is probably too big to be used in the Google search listing.
Answer: A

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NO.4 You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement.
Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are working with your client to optimize their Google AdWords ad. Which targeting tool can you
use, to predict the average cost-per-click for your keywords?
A. Traffic Estimator
B. Keyword tool
C. Placement tool
D. Search Terms Report
Answer: A

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NO.6 Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web
content, her site has reached the top position in Google's organic search results for certain keywords. On
her site, she has added the phrase 'Recommended by Google' in the header. She does not, however, use
this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn't put this phrase in her Google AdWords
advertisements.
C. No, Terri's site is recommended by Google as she's on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
D. Yes, Google doesn't allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her
site is directly affiliated with Google.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You manage multiple accounts for Google AdWords as part of your SEO business. You have two
assistants who help you manage the accounts through sub-My Client Centers. Because this part of your
business has been growing, you have hired a third assistant and created a third My Client Center. What is
the process of moving an account from one sub-MCC to the new sub-MCC?
A. From the top-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move and
then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the account should be moved to,
and then Save Changes.
B. From the sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move to
the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved to, and then Save Changes.
C. Accounts cannot be moved between sub-MCCs.
D. From the new sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move
to the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved from, and then Save Changes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have created several campaigns with Google AdWords for your clients. You are using the Manager
Defined Spend for your budgets in Google AdWords. When you create a new start date for a budget, what
requirement does Google have in regard to the new budget and existing budgets that you manage?
A. Managed account budgets must be approved by two parties before the ad will begin display.
B. Start dates for new budgets can't overlap with other budgets that may already be set up for the
managed account.
C. Managed account budgets cannot exceed $100 per day.
D. Managed account budgets can't start and end on the same day for more than three managed
accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Mary has a Google AdWords account, and she feels that her Google AdWords aren't performing well.
Mary wants to make adjustments to her ad, to get more clickthroughs to her website. Which of the
following optimizations is likely to help Mary increase her clickthrough rate?
A. Mary should stop using an image ad and use a text ad only, in Google search.
B. Mary should focus on her website by adding content.
C. Mary should focus on ad quality and use negative keywords, to eliminate extra impressions.
D. Mary should create multiple campaigns, and track the performance of each campaign.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Nancy has created a campaign for her boutique. She has customized the ad and targeted her city and
specific content. Nancy has noticed that her ad performs best on Tuesdays and Wednesdays, as people
prepare for their weekend plans. Nancy would like to automatically adjust her bids for keywords on
Tuesdays and Wednesdays. Is this possible?
A. No, Google AdWords can automatically change the bids, but only for seven-day increments.
B. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Demographic bidding.
C. No, Nancy will need to login into Google AdWords, and manually change her bids for these two days.
D. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Ad scheduling.
Answer: D

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NO.11 If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account's
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
Answer: A

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NO.12 Steve is a web marketing consultant, and he's reviewing a client's Google AdWords. Steve is
interested in the keyword analysis field on the Keywords tab, in the client's campaign. When Steve looks
at the keywords quality score, he can determine how well the keyword is likely to perform.
What is the scale that Google displays the Quality Score?
A. Very high, Moderate, Low, Poor
B. Google does not reveal the Quality Score as it is proprietary information.
C. 1 to 100
D. 1 to 10
Answer: D

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NO.13 Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two
months, and he'd like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see
the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
B. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won't see this information.
C. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +["Iron Man"]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. ("Iron Man")
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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NO.15 Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the
billing summary titled 'Adjustment - Click Quality'. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad
beyond her given budget.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn't take visitors to her domain.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
Answer: D

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NO.16 John has started a new business that sells bumper stickers online. His primary advertising focus is
branding his business name, and getting as much exposure as possible on the Internet. John has hired
you to help him manage his Google advertising. Based on what you know so far, what approach would
you recommend to John?
A. SEM based on web content
B. SEO for good web content
C. CPM models
D. PPC models
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are investigating Google AdWords double-serving policy for a client. You learn that Google
AdWords doesn't allow multiple ads from the same client, based on duplicate keywords. You also learn
that individuals advertising for themselves, or for their ownbusinesses, may only have a single AdWords
account. Does Google have any exceptions for the number of AdWords account a person can manage?
A. Yes, if you have two or more products to sell from the same domain, you can manage one Google
AdWords account for each product.
B. Yes, if you use a My Client Center account, you may have multiple accounts.
C. No. All Google AdWords participants can have just one Google AdWords account.
D. Yes, if you have two or more landing sites on different domains, you can manage one Google AdWords
account for each domain.
Answer: B

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NO.18 You're reviewing a campaign you've created for your company with your manager. The manager is
curious about the budget setting on the campaign's tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It's the maximum amount you'll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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NO.19 You have created a report for you and your client, regarding several performance factors. You receive
an email asking you to download your report from the Report Center. Your report, as it turns out, is too big
for Google to email. What is the maximum size of reports in an email sent through Google?
A. 25MB
B. 2MB
C. 50MB
D. 66MB]
Answer: B

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NO.20 Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the pages
that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What term should
Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C

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NO.21 Alice manages several AdWords accounts and she has three assistants who help with the management
of the accounts. Alice receives a phone call from one of her clients regarding recent Google AdWords
clicks. The client reports that he thinks something is amiss with his account, and thinks someone has
changed the budget. How can Alice review any changes to the account and, if necessary, determine if
someone has made changes to the account's budget.?
A. Alice should use the Change History Tool.
B. Alice should use the AdWords API.
C. Alice should use the My Client Center.
D. Alice should use the AdWords Editor.
Answer: A

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NO.22 You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for their
Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the lowest possible
value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a combination of the
Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn't satisfied and wants a more in-depth explanation.
Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you ¯r e you rkeywords
by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person moves to the
top of the order.
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you're helping her with her Google AdWords
account. The photographer doesn't understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn't started
generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications
for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the
Google Network?
A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
Answer: A

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NO.24 Kelly has created two ad groups for her realty business in Ohio. In both ad groups, she's identified the
keyword 'Columbus Condos' for her ads. What problem exists within this scenario that could affect Kelly's
ads?
A. Kelly should not have keywords competing against one another.
B. Kelly should merge all the ads into one campaign so that her ads will show up twice in search results.
C. By having two ad groups with the same keyword, Kelly may pay considerably more for her ads
because the ads will appear twice in search results.
D. Kelly should only have one ad group, not multiple groups.
Answer: A

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NO.25 You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who work
with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You'd like to leave comments to
items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants, and allow them to
respond to your queries. What's the correct path to leave a comment on an item in Google AdWords
Editor?
A. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items, such
as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Paula has created a Google AdWords campaign for her company. She has created a good group of
keywords for her ads, and she's eager to get visitors to her site as soon as possible. Paula would like
Google to display her ads as often as possible, until her budget is reached. What type of delivery option
should Paula choose for her ads?
A. Instant delivery
B. Accelerated delivery
C. Click-cost delivery
D. Standard delivery
Answer: B

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NO.27 Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and accurately
edit the destination URL for his company's Google AdWords ads, without having to edit them each,
individually. What's the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online Google
AdWords editor, and wait for Google's approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing all
campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D

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NO.28 Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough rate, but
he feels that his sales aren't in proportion to the clickthrough rate he's receiving. Henry wants to optimize
his site, but he wants to identify where he's losing visitors on the way to conversion. Which Google
Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
Answer: D

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NO.29 Google recommends that ad creators include a strong call to action phrase in their
advertisements. Which of the following is the weakest call to action phrase?
A. Call today
B. Click here
C. Buy
D. Purchase
Answer: B

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NO.30 You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for
new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other
components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network.
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the
Content Network with 'Relevant pages across the entire network' in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C

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