Pass4Test offre une formation sur ISEB BH0-009 matériaux examen

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Code d'Examen: BH0-009
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ITSM Foundation Certificate in Problem & Incident Management)
Questions et réponses: 75 Q&As

BH0-009 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/BH0-009.html

NO.1 When looking at the Performance System, which is the correct sequence?
A.Situation, Performer, Response, Feedback, Consequences.
B.Consequences, Feedback, Situation, Performer, Response.
C.Situation, Performer, Response, Consequences, Feedback.
D.Performer, Feedback, Situation, Consequences, Response.
Answer: C

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NO.2 When confirming the most probable cause, you should choose methods that are
A.Easiest, quickest, cheapest, safest, surest.
B.Things that you can do right now.
C.Acceptable to everyone who will be involved.
D.Able to be done experimentally i.e.not in live.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Once you have found the cause of a problem, you should use Think Beyond the Fix to prevent
recurrence.What are two ways to Think Beyond the Fix?
A.Extend the cause, extend the fix.
B.Identify likely causes, take preventive action.
C.Identify distinctions, identify changes.
D.Identify likely effects, plan contingent action.
Answer: A

ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009   certification BH0-009

NO.4 In Decision Analysis, actions to reduce risk:
a)Take a great amount of planning.
b)Can be done quickly and simply.
c)Should only be done when the risks are high.
d)Should bring risk to an acceptable level.
A.a and b.
B.b and d.
C.c only.
D.d only.
Answer: B

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NO.5 The purpose of the problem specification is:
a.To document a factual description of the problem.
b.To show the boundaries of the problem.
c.To help eliminate possible causes.
d.To help identify distinctions.
A.a and c.
B.a, b and c.
C.b and d.
D.All of the above
Answer: D

ISEB examen   certification BH0-009   BH0-009   certification BH0-009   certification BH0-009   certification BH0-009

NO.6 In the Balance of Consequences, which of the consequence types should be used first to drive
behavioural change?
a)Immediate Positive.
b)Immediate Negative.
c)Delayed Positive.
d)Delayed Negative.
A.a and b.
B.c and d.
C.a only.
D.b only.
Answer: C

ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009 examen   BH0-009   certification BH0-009

NO.7 Which of the following activities is NOT part of Situation Appraisal?
A.Identify concerns.
B.Set priority.
C.Identify possible causes.
D.Plan involvement.
Answer: C

ISEB   certification BH0-009   BH0-009 examen   certification BH0-009   BH0-009

NO.8 When generating alternatives why is an expanded number of choices desirable?
A.To make sure any 'pet' alternatives are considered.
B.To increase the chances of picking a winner.
C.To ensure a complete, balanced set of alternatives.
D.To ensure the recommendation gets approved.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following activities would initially help identify how green an organisation currently is?
A. Developing a Stakeholder Map.
B. Drafting an action register.
C. Holding a fact-finding workshop.
D. Creating a carbon accounting system.
Answer: C

certification ISEB   BH0-009   BH0-009   BH0-009

NO.10 Why are Turnaround Questions used when developing a problem specification?
A.To drill down to the most specific answer.
B.To get lots of information.
C.When you stop making progress
D.To involve more people.
Answer: A

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ISEB meilleur examen ISEB-PM1, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: ISEB-PM1
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (Foundation Certificate in Project Management)
Questions et réponses: 625 Q&As

ISEB-PM1 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ISEB-PM1.html

NO.1 Which of the following does NOT assess the value a project brings to an organization?
A. Benefit cost analysis
B. Net present value
C. Value analysis
D. Needs assessment
Answer: C

certification ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1

NO.2 A project manager has just been assigned to a new project and has been given the approved project
charter. The FIRST thing the project manager must do is:
A. Create a project scope statement.
B. Confirm that all the stakeholders have had input to the scope.
C. Analyze project risk.
D. Begin work on a project management plan.
Answer: B

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NO.3 You are about to begin negotiations with people from another country. Which of the following should
provide guidance on what business practices are allowed and not allowed?
A. The company code of conduct
B. The project charter
C. The scope management plan
D. The negotiation plan
Answer: A

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NO.4 A project manager has made a change to the project. What should she do NEXT?
A. Assign resources.
B. Revise the project management plan and/or project documents.
C. Evaluate impact.
D. Request change control board involvement.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Linear programming is an example of what type of project selection criteria?
A. Constrained optimization
B. Comparative approach
C. Benefit measurement
D. Impact analysis
Answer: A

ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1 examen

NO.6 While preparing your risk responses, you realize that you have not planned for unknown risk events.
You need to make adjustments to the project to compensate for unknown risk events. These adjustments
are based on your past project experience when unknown risk events occurred and knocked the project
off track. What should you do?
A. Include a management reserve in the budget to try to compensate for the unknown risks, and notify
management to expect unknown risks to occur.
B. Document the unknown risk items and calculate the expected monetary value based on probability and
impact that may result from the occurrence.
C. Determine the unknown risk events and the associated cost, then add the cost to the project budget as
reserves.
D. With the stakeholders, determine a percentage of the known risk budget to allocate to a management
reserve budget.
Answer: A

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NO.7 All of the following are correct statements about a project manager EXCEPT:
A. He or she is assigned after the project charter is created.
B. He or she may initiate changes to the project.
C. He or she manages changes and factors that create change.
D. He or she is held accountable for project success or failure.
Answer: A

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NO.8 A project manager has finished the project. He knows that the project scope has been completed and
is within cost and time objectives set by management. Management, however, says that the project is a
failure, because the original schedule was for 27 weeks and the project was completed in 33 weeks. If the
project baseline was 33 weeks, the project is a success because:
A. It only had six weeks of changes.
B. It was completed within the baseline.
C. There were so few changes.
D. There was good communication control.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A project team member tells you that she went to her project manager with a good idea for a useful
change to the project. Instead of giving her approval to make the change, the project manager asked her
to write a report describing the benefits of the change. What is the MOST appropriate advice for the
situation?
A. The project manager is being unreasonable and should do that kind of work herself.
B. Remind the project manager that the benefit cost analysis for the project was done during project
planning.
C. A project manager must be able to weigh the benefits of the change versus the costs and compare
them to other possible changes. The team member should do what was asked.
D. The team member should do what was asked because this sort of information must be given to the
project sponsor to make the change.
Answer: C

ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1 examen

NO.10 A work authorization system can be used to:
A. Manage who does each activity.
B. Manage when and in what sequence work is done.
C. Manage when each activity is done.
D. Manage who does each activity and when it is done.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The performing organization is trying to decide whether to split the contracts department and assign
procurement responsibilities to departments directly responsible for the projects. A procurement
professional might not want this split to occur because they would lose ___________ in a decentralized
contracting environment.
A. Standardized company project management practices
B. Loyalty to the project
C. Experience
D. Access to others with similar expertise
Answer: D

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NO.12 An employee approaches you and asks to tell you something in confidence. He advises you that he has
been performing illegal activities within the company for the last year. He is feeling guilty about it and is
telling you in order to receive advice as to what he should do. What should you do?
A. Ask for full details.
B. Confirm that the activity is really illegal.
C. Inform your manager of the illegal activity.
D. Tell the employee to inform his boss.
Answer: C

ISEB   ISEB-PM1 examen   ISEB-PM1

NO.13 A project manager in a predominantly hierarchical organization has been assigned a major project with
aggressive timelines.
The BEST approach for developing an initial project charter in this environment is to:
A. Create a project charter using brainstorming sessions with potential team members and
stakeholders.
B. Create and present a draft project charter to potential team members and stakeholders to solicit their
input.
C. Create a project charter jointly with management for distribution to potential team members and
stakeholders.
D. Create a project charter with the functional managers and present it to the sponsor for signature.
Answer: C

ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1

NO.14 Your company has just presented its new five-year strategic plan. You have received a new product
request from a customer that is in line with the previous five-year strategic plan, but it does not meet the
objectives of the new plan. The product description seems to have a valid business driver and to be a
straightforward development effort. As project manager, what is the BEST course of action?
A. Do a benefit cost analysis of the project and submit it for management approval.
B. Submit the new product request to the PMO for review and approval before proceeding.
C. Inform the customer of the change in corporate direction and ask him/her to take another look at the
project.
D. Request a project charter from management and begin a WBS.
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are a new project manager who has never managed a project before. You have been asked to
plan a new project. It would be BEST in this situation to rely on _______ during planning to improve your
chance of success.
A. Your intuition and training
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Historical information
D. Configuration management
Answer: C

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NO.16 What is one of the KEY objectives during contract negotiations?
A. Obtain a fair and reasonable price.
B. Negotiate a price under the seller's estimate.
C. Ensure that all project risks are thoroughly delineated.
D. Ensure that an effective communications management plan is established.
Answer: A

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NO.17 A new project manager is having difficulty creating a WBS with the team.
To alleviate this situation, the project manager should ask for help from:
A. The sponsor.
B. Other project managers.
C. The project management office.
D. The team.
Answer: C

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NO.18 If a project manager is concerned with gathering, integrating, and disseminating the outputs of all
project management processes, she should concentrate on creating a better:
A. WBS.
B. Communications management plan.
C. Project management information system.
D. Project scope management plan.
Answer: C

ISEB   certification ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1 examen   ISEB-PM1 examen   certification ISEB-PM1

NO.19 The Java development of a project is outsourced to India. The project schedule is starting to slip. What
is the LEAST likely cause of the slippage?
A. Lack of competent programmers
B. Cultural influences
C. Internationalization
D. Communication
Answer: A

ISEB   ISEB-PM1   ISEB-PM1

NO.20 Your management has decided that all orders will be treated as "projects" and that project managers will
be used to update orders daily, to resolve issues, and to ensure that the customer formally accepts the
product within 30 days of completion. Revenue from the individual orders can vary from US $100 to US
$150,000. The project manager will not be required to perform planning or provide documentation other
than daily status. How would you define this situation.?
A. Because each individual order is a "temporary endeavor," each order is a project.
B. This is program management since there are multiple projects involved.
C. This is a recurring process.
D. Orders incurring revenue over $100,000 would be considered projects and would involve project
management.
Answer: C

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ISEB ISEBSWTINT-001, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: ISEBSWTINT-001
Nom d'Examen: ISEB (ISEB Software Testing Intermediate)
Questions et réponses: 25 Q&As

ISEBSWTINT-001 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/ISEBSWTINT-001.html

NO.1 Which of the following is an accurate depiction of the hierarchy of test management
documentation (where the highest comes first)?
A. Test policy-Test strategy-Project test plan-System test plan
B. Test strategy-Test policy-Project test plan-System test plan
C. Test policy-Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan
D. Project test plan-Test strategy-System test plan-Test policy
Answer: A

ISEB   certification ISEBSWTINT-001   certification ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001 examen   ISEBSWTINT-001 examen

NO.2 Which of the following test design techniques would be most suitable for testing that the
oxygen is released at the required times?
A. Decision Testing.
B. Statement Testing.
C. Data flow Testing.
D. Boundary Value Analysis.
Answer: D

ISEB examen   ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001

NO.3 Which of the following would be an entry criterion into site acceptance testing for the air
quality monitoring system?
A. That the code written to fulfil the requirement to monitor carbon dioxide levels has been 100%
path tested.
B. That the functional specification accurately reflects requirements R1 and R2.
C. That the system has been tested at levels of oxygen usage well beyond anticipated personnel
levels.
D. That the requirements for temperature control have been signed-off.
Answer: C

certification ISEB   ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001 examen   ISEBSWTINT-001

NO.4 Which one is a product risk associated with the air quality management system?
A. The system required to monitor oxygen levels may be more expensive than those required to
monitor air temperatures.
B. SubsInc may need to recruit extra developers and testers to deliver the project on time.
C. Oxygen levels may reach dangerously low levels.
D. Extreme temperatures may lead to heat exhaustion of personnel.
Answer: C

certification ISEB   ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001 examen

NO.5 When creating the functional specification for the temperature control system, which of the
following review types would be most recommended to resolve any issues?
A. A walkthrough.
B. A technical review.
C. A management review.
D. A code inspection.
Answer: B

ISEB   ISEBSWTINT-001 examen   ISEBSWTINT-001   ISEBSWTINT-001

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L'avènement de la certification ISC pratique d'examen CAP questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CAP
Nom d'Examen: ISC (CAP – Certified Authorization Professional)
Questions et réponses: 395 Q&As

CAP Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/CAP.html

NO.1 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

ISC   CAP examen   certification CAP   CAP
Topic 3, Volume C

NO.2 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

ISC   CAP   CAP   CAP   certification CAP
Topic 4, Volume B

NO.3 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

ISC examen   CAP examen   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.4 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.5 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

ISC   CAP   CAP examen

NO.6 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

ISC   CAP   certification CAP   CAP   CAP
Topic 2, Volume D

NO.7 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.8 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.9 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

ISC   CAP examen   CAP
Topic 1, Volume A

NO.10 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: II0-001
Nom d'Examen: IISFA (Certified Information Forensics Investigator(CIFI))
Questions et réponses: 229 Q&As

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NO.1 .A new protocol that is designed to aid in intrusion protection and IP tracebacks is
known as:
A. Intruder Detection and Isolation Protocol (IDIP)
B. Intrusion Detection and Traceback Protocol (IDTP)
C. Facilitating Traceback Protocol (FTP)
D. Intruder Detection and Internet Protocol (IDIP)
Answer: A

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NO.2 .Stream comparison used as a Traceback technique focuses on what two factors?
A. the IP address and victim port
B. the packet contents and audit logs
C. inter-packet timing and the victim port
D. the packet contents and inter-packet timing
Answer: D

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NO.3 .To perform a successful traceback, the two most prominent problems that need to
be solved are locating the source of IP packets and:
A. the timestamp of the event
B. determining the first node of a connection chain
C. the reflector host
D. the victim port
Answer: B

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NO.4 .In selecting Forensic tools for collecting evidence in the investigation of a crime the
standard for authenticating computer records is:
A. The same for authenticating other records. The degree of authentication does not
vary simply because a record happens to be (or has been at one point) in electronic
form.
B. Much more complex, and requires an expert to be present at each step of the process.
C. To convert the technical terms & definitions into a basic understandable language to
be presented as evidence.
D. To ensure the tools are equipped with logging to document the steps of evidence
collection.
Answer: C

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NO.5 .Embedding a serial number or watermark into a data file is known as:
A. Hashing
B. Steganography
C. Message Digest
D. Imprinting
Answer: B

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NO.6 ."Interesting data" is:
A. Data relevant to your investigation
B. Pornography
C. Documents, spreadsheets, and databases
D. Schematics or other economic based information
Answer: A

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NO.7 .The major disadvantage to techniques that attempt to mark IP packets as they move
through the internet is:
A. A decrease in network efficiency
B. An increase in the packet load
C. An increase in bandwidth consumption
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 .What technique of layered security design will allow for both investigation and
recovery after an incident?
A. RI Technology
B. Highly available systems
C. Overlap design approach
D. Honeypot placement
Answer: B

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NO.9 .One caution an investigator should take when examining the source of a network
attack is:
A. an occurrence of Social Engineering
B. relaxed physical security
C. the source IP address may have been spoofed
D. a sniffer could be on the network
Answer: C

IISFA examen   II0-001   II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.10 Drive geometry refers to
A. The algorithms used to computer a specific location of a particular segment.
B. The functional dimensions of a drive in terms of the number of heads, cylinders, and
sectors per track.
C. Physical dimensions of the drive platters.
D. The depth of the pits on optical media or magnetic field charge on magnetic media
Answer: B

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen

NO.11 .All of the following are methods of auditing except:
A. Internal audit
B. External audit
C. Thorough audit
D. 3rd party audit
Answer: C

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NO.12 .The most important network information that should be observed from the logs
during a Traceback is the intruder IP address, the victim IP address, the victim
port, protocol information and the:
A. source port
B. operating system
C. MAC address
D. timestamp
Answer: D

certification IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001

NO.13 .The 1st amendment allows hackers to exercise free speech by altering content on
websites to express opposing viewpoints.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

IISFA examen   certification II0-001   II0-001   II0-001   II0-001

NO.14 Firewalls are an excellent source of:
A. Details of system usage
B. Details of protocol usage
C. Forensic Evidence for malicious attacks
D. Port/service mappings
Answer: C

certification IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   certification II0-001

NO.15 .Which of the following are characteristics of electronic Evidence?
A. Cannot be easily altered
B. Is not time sensitive
C. Should follow proper chain of custody
D. Must be decrypted
Answer: C

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.16 .What is the difference between a zombie host and a reflector host?
A. Unlike a zombie, a reflector is a laundering host that fundamentally transforms
and/or delays the attacker's communications before they continue down the attack
path. (Zombie technique)
B. Unlike a zombie, a Traceback through the stepping stone host requires determining if
two communications streams, viewed at different points in the network, have the
same origin and are essentially the same stream. (stepping stone Traceback
technique)
C. Unlike a zombie host, the reflector is an uncompromised host that cooperates with
the attack in an innocent manner consistent with its normal function.
D. A zombie is a version of a reflector host.
Answer: C

certification IISFA   II0-001   II0-001 examen

NO.17 .The term "Browser Artifacts" refer to:
A. Web browser cache, cookies, favorites, history, auto complete information
B. Older web browser applications that have little or no security and allow for
unchecked use
C. Older web browser applications that can be used as a surveillance tool for
investigators due to their lack of security
D. Web browser cookies
Answer: A

IISFA   II0-001   II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.18 .Social engineer is legal in the United States, Great Britain, Canada, and Australia as
long as the social engineer does not:
A. Attempt to extract corporate secrets
B. Lie
C. Apply the Frye Scenario
D. Live outside those countries
Answer: A

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NO.19 .In normal operation, a host receiving packets can determine their source by direct
examination of the source address field in the:
A. The IP packet header
B. Source code
C. Audit logs
D. Intrusion Detection System
Answer: A

IISFA   certification II0-001   II0-001 examen   II0-001

NO.20 .If a CIFI violates the ISFA code of Ethics, her CIFI certification can be immediately
revoked.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 000-744
Nom d'Examen: IBM (DS4000 Technical Version 1)
Questions et réponses: 140 Q&As

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NO.1 To generate a premium feature key that can be installed on a DS4000 subsystem, you must provide
certain information to IBM. This information includes the IBM machine type/model and what additional
information?
A. serial number, activation code, feature enable identifier and e-mail address
B. serial number, activation code, and e-mail address
C. activation code, e-mail address, controller firmware level
D. serial number, and e-mail address, drive firmware level
Answer: A

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NO.2 When configuring a customer's multimedia sequential I/O environment, what must you do?
A. use a small segment size with many disks
B. select a stripe size that is the same or an even multiple of the I/O size
C. use small segment size in conjunction with RAID 0
D. select a segment size that minimizes the occurrences of a single I/O on multiple drives
Answer: B

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744 examen   000-744

NO.3 When creating a FlashCopy of a logical drive, a repository logical drive is created. The repository
logical drive is for metadata and copy-on-write data when a change is made to the FlashCopy source
logical drive. By default, what is its size?
A. 10% of the source volume
B. 20% of the source volume
C. 50% of the source volume
D. 100% of the source volume
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-744   000-744

NO.4 What best describes a drive in eplaced status?
A. a drive that has replaced a failed drive and needs to be revived in order to complete the data recovery
process
B. a temporary status for a drive that has replaced a failed drive, but has not yet been reconstructed
C. a hot spare that has spared out for a failed drive in an array causing the hot spare to become the active
drive in the array
D. the final state of a drive that has replaced a failed drive and has been reconstructed
Answer: B

IBM   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744

NO.5 Which statement about DS4000 firmware upgrades is true?
A. The controller firmware and NVSRAM files are closely tied to each other and must be installed in the
proper combination.
B. Controller firmware and NVSRAM upgrades always require the ESM firmware to be upgraded at the
same time.
C. Only one controller must be accessible via the Ethernet or fiber in order to perform a controller
firmware upgrade.
D. The controller firmware and NVSRAM are independent from each other and can be upgraded at
different times.
Answer: A

IBM   000-744   000-744

NO.6 A customer is combining two separate IT operations in one central location. They are using a DS4800.
Performance has been marginal. You look at the DS4800 Performance Monitor and observe that they are
well within the DS4800 performance specifications. Which tool can be used to determine the cause of the
problem?
A. Capacity Magic
B. Bandwidth Estimator
C. IOMeter
D. Disk Magic
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-744 examen   000-744

NO.7 What does a flashing green LED on a drive indicate?
A. status ok
B. drive active
C. failed drive
D. hot spare in use
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744 examen   000-744

NO.8 Three hosts are redundantly connected to a DS4000 system. Two are running a non-clustered
Windows 2003 Server and the other is running Red Hat Linux. How many Storage Partitions are used in
this configuration?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 8
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-744 examen   certification 000-744

NO.9 When examining a profile you see the following:
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 8 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 8]
How should this be configured for enclosure loss protection?
A. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
B. Drive at Enclosure 3, Slot 1 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 3, slot 1]
C. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 17 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 17]
D. Drive at Enclosure 5, Slot 9 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 15, slot 19]
Drive at Enclosure 15, Slot 19 [mirrored pair with drive at enclosure 5, slot 9]
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-744   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744

NO.10 A customer wants to use SATA drives to reduce costs. Which application matches SATA use?
A. TSM
B. Exchange
C. application with low IOPS
D. write once, read many times
Answer: C

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744

NO.11 In addition to the storage administrator's e-mail address, what information do you need to set up
e-mail alerts to be sent to the storage administrator?
A. sender's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
B. sender's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
C. storage administrator's POP server address, the sender's e-mail address
D. storage administrator's SMTP server address, the sender's e-mail address
Answer: A

IBM   000-744 examen   000-744   000-744

NO.12 What is one disadvantage of managing a storage subsystem through the Fibre Channel IO path?
A. The fibre cable used for data IO cannot be used for management commands.
B. An access logical drive is required to communicate with the controllers.
C. Management commands cannot be encapsulated by the Fibre Channel protocol.
D. Ethernet cables to the controllers are also required to send management commands.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the minimum number of HDDs required for RAID 6?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: D

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744 examen

NO.14 In the Major Event Log (MEL), what does immediate Availability Initialization (IAF) completed on
logical drive" indicate?
A. The drive has been internally reformatted.
B. The drive has just become accessible by the host.
C. LUN has just been replaced.
D. Hot sparing has occurred.
Answer: A

IBM examen   000-744   000-744

NO.15 In the exhibit, which management method is being used?
A. in-band
B. rlogin
C. client-host-band
D. out-of-band
Answer: D

IBM   000-744   000-744   000-744   000-744

NO.16 You have been called in to assist the storage administrator who has been using Global Mirror with an
Enhanced Remote Mirroring (ERM) configuration to mirror the company inventory database from
headquarters to a data warehouse at a remote site. The storage administrator has been re-evaluating this
approach and needs your help to change the mirroring mode to Metro Mirroring for better control over
data going to the remote site. What must you do to help the storage administrator make the change?
A. advise the storage administrator to purchase two new licenses
B. break and re-establish the mirror relationship
C. back up the inventory data to tape
D. make the mode change in Storage Manager
Answer: D

IBM   000-744   certification 000-744   000-744 examen

NO.17 You arrive at a customer site to implement the DS4000 solution and find that the customer wants to use
RAID 1+0 instead of RAID 5 for everything. What is a possible concern in this situation?
A. capacity
B. random IO performance
C. throughput performance
D. disk rebuild times
Answer: A

IBM   000-744   000-744   certification 000-744

NO.18 How do you configure SNMP traps in the Storage Manager GUI?
A. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Storage Subsystem menu
B. from the Subsystem Management window, use the Advanced menu
C. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Advanced menu
D. from the Enterprise Management window, use the Edit menu
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-744 examen   000-744   certification 000-744

NO.19 Which statement is FALSE regarding hot spare drives in the DS4000 subsystem?
A. The storage server will attempt to find a spare in the same enclosure as the failed drive first.
B. The storage server will give preference to a spare the same size as the failed drive.
C. The storage server will use a spare with at least the same capacity as the failed drive.
D. The controller may use a spare that is larger than the failed drive and block the remaining capacity
from use.
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-744   000-744 examen   certification 000-744

NO.20 When performing an array migration, what is NOT required?
A. verification that there is no logical drive name duplication between the source and target systems
B. removal of mappings for all logical drives within the array being migrated
C. documenting the stripe order of the drives in the array for proper placement on the target subsystem
D. Advanced Maintenance Place Array Offline
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-R18
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM SurePOS ACE V5 Technical Professional)
Questions et réponses: 103 Q&As

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NO.1 How many varieties can each ACE tender have?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.2 The immediate override limit applies to limits specified in which of the following options?
A. Price Override and Item Limits
B. Transaction Limits and Item Limits
C. Price Override and Department Groups
D. Transaction Limits and Department Groups
Answer: C

IBM   000-R18   000-R18   certification 000-R18

NO.3 Which of the following CANNOT be performed at both the terminal and controller?
A. Cashier Loan
B. Terminal Monitor
C. Cashier Reconciliation
D. Department Totals Report
Answer: C

IBM   000-R18   000-R18 examen

NO.4 The following percentage tax plans are set up with conventional rounding: 1=4% 2=1.5% 3=.5%
4=not set up The item record for item 81382 has: Tax Plan A [*] Tax Plan B [ ] Tax Plan C [*] Tax
Plan D [ ] The item record for 81382 has a unit price of $3.00. How much tax will be charged for
selling quantity 1 of 81382?
A. 12 cents
B. 13 cents
C. 14 cents
D. 19 cents
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-R18   000-R18 examen   000-R18 examen

NO.5 SurePOS ACE verifies tenders by checking the account number entered during the transaction against
the:
A. Customer Data file.
B. Tender Listing file.
C. Customer Activity file.
D. Tender Verification file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 The item record for a bottle of soda in Department 4 has its linked item field filled in with 1234, and has
its Links To Deposit flag turned on. Item 1234 is designated as a Deposit Item type with a value of 10
cents. If 10 bottles of soda are sold during the day, where does the total deposit amount get reflected in
the Department Totals Report?
A. In the report's Deposits category
B. In the Total Sales for Department 4
C. In the Total Sales for the department shown for item 1234
D. In the Total Sales for the designated department for deposits
Answer: A

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NO.7 After displaying the food stamp total during an order, which of the following statements is true?
A. Amount of food stamps tendered is displayed.
B. No tax amounts can be included in the amount displayed.
C. Additional food stamp ineligible items cannot be entered.
D. Food stamps can only be tendered for the amount displayed.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Tender verification is supported through ACE's implementation of which of the following files?
A. Customer File
B. Tender Listing File
C. Tender Verification File
D. Customer Account Status file
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 000-027
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 Implementation )
Questions et réponses: 137 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about items that have been assembled into a kit?
A. Only rotating items can be part of a kit.
B. Kits can be assembled from lotted items.
C. Kits can be assembled from items in different storerooms.
D. Items that have been assembled into kits do not appear in item balances.
Answer: D

IBM   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.2 Which two applications can be used to view actual costs for labor, materials, services, and tools?
(Choose two.)
A. Labor Reporting
B. Quick Reporting
C. Work Order Tracking
D. Assignment Manager
E. Work Order Management
Answer: BC

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NO.3 Company XYZ receives an invoice from one of its vendors. How is this processed in IBM Maximo
Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM)?
A. When an invoice is received by the company, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
receipt information, approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
B. All invoices are routed by IMAM to the Accounts Payable department for matching against existing
purchase requisitions (PR). Once the PR is confirmed with the proper approvals, the
Accounts Payable department will process payment.
C. When an invoice is received by company XYZ, the user will access the Invoices application, enter the
Vendors Invoice information by creating a new record, match the Vendor Invoice to the
Purchase Order (PO), approve, and then route to Accounts Payable.
D. When an invoice is received by the company XYZ, the user will go to the PO application, access the
PO Line tab, and insure that the receipt box has a Y. If the Y is showed, the invoice will be
closed, but if the Y is missing, the invoice will be routed back to the vendor for verification.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What does the ABC designation include for inventory items?
A. Quantity reserved in stock
B. Quantity expired for a particular Lot
C. Count Frequency in number of days
D. Activity Based Costing in capital dollars
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.5 What is the use of work assets on safety plans?
A. The work asset determines to which assets and locations a safety plan can be applied.
B. Only safety plans with associated work assets can be used in combination with job plans.
C. The safety plan can only be applied to work orders with the same asset or location associated.
D. The work assets combined with the work on a job plan dictate which safety information is required.
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-027 examen   000-027   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.6 What must be assigned to establish an asset as Rotating?
A. Spare parts
B. Rotating Item
C. Classification
D. Operating Location
Answer: B

IBM   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   certification 000-027

NO.7 How can Service Items be reordered?
A. The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM) administrator can use the Reorder Items action in
the Inventory application to reorder all the Service Items required.
B. The IMAM administrator can create a purchase order (PO) for all the Service Items required and use
the Issue on Receipt check box for PO Lines related to Service Items.
C. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder all items or services and are issued without being received into
inventory.
D. The IMAM administrator can use the Reorder Direct Issue Items and Services action in the Service
Item application to reorder items or services that are listed on approved work orders and
are issued without being received into inventory.
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-027   000-027   000-027   certification 000-027

NO.8 In a routing type workflow process, on which nodes does IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 use the
information specified to deliver the record to individuals?
A. Condition and Task
B. Manual Input and Task
C. Interaction and Manual Input
D. Manual Input and Subprocess
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.9 In IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2, what does the Purchase Orders applications Distribute
Costs action do?
A. Distribute the line item cost among all lines.
B. Distribute the line item cost among all direct issue lines.
C. Distribute the line item cost among multiple GL accounts.
D. Distribute the purchase order cost among multiple GL accounts.
Answer: C

IBM   000-027   000-027 examen   certification 000-027   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.10 What is used to execute a task at a particular time against any application on a user-defined schedule
with user-defined parameters?
A. Sets
B. Workflow
C. Cron Task
D. Notification
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.11 Which statement is true about item records and inventory management?
A. With IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 (IMAM), item records are created in the Item Master
application, and storeroom records are created in the Storerooms application, but inventory is
managed in the Inventory application.
B. With IMAM, item records are created in the Storerooms application, and storeroom records are created
in the Inventory application, but inventory is managed in the Inventory application.
C. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Item Master application, and inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
D. With IMAM, item records are created in the Inventory application, and storeroom records are created in
the Storerooms application, but inventory is managed in the Item Master application.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.12 The Client has requested that once Terms and Conditions (Ts Cs) are attached to another record, the
Ts Cs should be unchangeable. How is this appropriately accomplished?
A. In the Contracts application, delete the Ts Cs from the record and enter a new row.
B. In the application using the specific Ts Cs, rename the Ts Cs and approve the record.
C. In the Terms and Conditions Application, uncheck the Editable box on the newly created term.
D. In the Terms and Conditions Application, change the status of the newly created term to Approved.
Answer: C

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.13 Other than through the Purchase Orders application, how can Purchase Orders be created in IBM
Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. from an approved Lease, Rental, Master, or Purchase contract
B. from a Purchase Requisitions Create PO action, create the approved Purchase Order
C. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Master Contract, or a reorder process
D. from a Purchase Requisition, a Request for Quotation, a Purchase Contract, or a reorder process
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-027 examen   000-027   certification 000-027

NO.14 What is the maximum value (as a percentage of total cost) that an item identified as condition-coded
can have?
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
Answer: D

IBM   000-027   certification 000-027

NO.15 With which level in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 are Purchase Contracts associated?
A. Set Level
B. System Level
C. Database Level
D. Organization Level
Answer: D

IBM   000-027   000-027 examen

NO.16 A work order has been created to perform corrective maintenance on a defective generator. All
required information has been provided in the work order, but required materials are not in stock and
have to be ordered. What is the status of the work order, after a maintenance manager has approved the
work order?
A. Approved (APPR)
B. Waiting on Materials (WMATL)
C. Waiting to be Scheduled (WSCH)
D. Waiting on Plant Condition (WPCOND)
Answer: B

IBM examen   certification 000-027   000-027 examen   certification 000-027

NO.17 In order to use the item records at the site level, to what must the item be added?
A. Asset
B. Location
C. Storeroom
D. Rotating Asset
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.18 Which status will prevent an invoice from being cancelled?
A. Hold
B. Entered
C. Approved
D. Waiting for Approval
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   certification 000-027

NO.19 What must be created before populating the Tools application?
A. Item Sets
B. Item Master Owner
C. Vendors for the Items
D. Storeroom assignment
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 000-027   certification 000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.20 What must be done in order to automatically close the purchase requisition (PR) after one or more
purchase orders (PO) have been created?
A. All PR lines must be assigned to a PO.
B. The PR must be in the Approved status.
C. The PR must enter the workflow process.
D. All manual company input fields must be completed.
Answer: A

IBM   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.21 What should be done to add lines from a Purchase Request (PR) to a Requests for Quotation (RFQ)?
A. Hyperlink to the PR tab and add each line.
B. Go to the Vendors tab in the RFQ application and click Create PO.
C. Go to the Quotation tab in the RFQ application and select RFQ lines.
D. Select Action in the RFQ application and click Copy PR line item to RFQ.
Answer: D

IBM   000-027   000-027   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.22 Based on which two conditions can master Preventive Maintenance (PM) schedules be created?
(Choose two.)
A. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by PM
B. difference between completion date of previous work and system date is equal to Lead Time
C. elapsed time since the target start date or completion date of the latest work orders for the asset
D. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of previous work generated by
PM
E. metered equipment usage since the target start date or completion date of the latest work order for the
asset
Answer: AD

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.23 The IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2 administrator creates a new Start Center with updated Key
Performance Indicators. Which application must be used to associate the Start Center to users?
A. Users
B. People
C. Organizations
D. Security Groups
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-027   000-027 examen

NO.24 At which level do Commodity Codes exist within IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2?
A. Set level
B. Site level
C. System level
D. Organization level
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-027   000-027 examen   000-027

NO.25 Which two applications can be used by a user to report emergency work, if the user at least wants to
report downtime, classify the request, and report actuals? (Choose two.)
A. Job Plan
B. Quick Reporting
C. Labor Reporting
D. Work Order Tracking
E. Assignment Manager
Answer: BD

IBM examen   certification 000-027   000-027   000-027   certification 000-027

NO.26 What should be done if a company decides to stop doing business with a vendor?
A. Notify buyers using Workflow.
B. Delete the Company Master record.
C. Set the Company record status to DISQUAL.
D. Check the Disqualified Vendor check box on the Company record.
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-027   000-027

NO.27 Through which action are Currency Codes created?
A. select New Row in Currency Codes application
B. select Action Currency Codes in the Database Configuration application
C. select an Organization in the Currency Codes application and add a new row
D. select the Base Currency lookup in the Organizations application and add a new row
Answer: A

IBM   000-027 examen   000-027 examen   certification 000-027   000-027

NO.28 Where are the receipt of Services and Materials processed in IBM Maximo Asset Management V6.2
(IMAM)?
A. The Receipt of Services and Materials are processed in the Receiving application.
B. Services are rendered and Materials are received in the Purchase Order application.
C. Receipts of Services and Materials are systematically processed in IMAM transitionally.
D. Services are rendered and Materials are received using the Issues and Transfer application.
Answer: A

IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027 examen

NO.29 Which menu option must be used to grant a user the authority to add or remove users to one or more
Security Groups?
A. Security Controls
B. Database Access
C. Set Security Profile
D. Authorize Group Reassignment
Answer: D

certification IBM   000-027   000-027   000-027   000-027

NO.30 Can an item balance ever be allowed to be negative?
A. never
B. always
C. depends on which item
D. depends on if it is allowed in the Inventory Default settings
Answer: D

IBM   000-027   000-027

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Code d'Examen: 000-M27
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Build Forge Technical Sales Mastery Date)
Questions et réponses: 46 Q&As

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NO.1 How does Build Forge improve a customers software build-and-release process?
A.by facilitating centralized collaboration
B.by providing up-to-date compilers and debuggers
C.by dynamically producing product documentation
D.by facilitating scripted unit testingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

IBM   000-M27   000-M27   000-M27

NO.2 Which component of the Build Forge functional architecture provides a pre-flight build capability that
allows you to selectively choose local file changes and preview the build results before committing the file
changes to source code control?
A.IDE plug-in
B.MMC plug-in
C.Staging Tool
D.Build Forge AgentWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: A

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NO.3 A software development company has a major customer that requires a previous release of their
software to be modified to run on Windows Vista.
Which software build-and-release best practice addresses this issue?
A.building early and often
B.build reproducibility
C.automation and integration
D.link to deployment environmentsWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which stage of the typical application development process is NOT automated in Build Forge?
A.Unit Testing
B.Requirements
C.Release
D.PackagingWArialTimes New RomanZ
Answer: B

certification IBM   000-M27 examen   000-M27

NO.5 What are the main business values that Build Forge brings to an organization?
A.secure, centralized role based console, developer self-service, accelerated build times
B.reduced cost of delivery, increased product quality, decreased time to market, and management
decision and support
C.Intelligent Bill of Materials, parallel processing through threading, and dynamic server management
D.dependency management, makefile acceleration, and reduced delivery costWArialTimes New
RomanZX
Answer: B

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