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Code d'Examen: HH0-280
Nom d'Examen: Hitachi (HDS Implemetation Specialist - Storage Management)
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 A Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) customer has switches, hosts, and storage. They want to
reduce their Get all Element Details (GAED) times.
Which recommendation should you make?
A. Use segmented replication.
B. Put everything in one discovery group.
C. Use the GAED wizard to reduce the time of each element.
D. Increase the memory of the server to reflect the number of discovery groups.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A customer has Hitachi USP V, Hitachi AMS, EMC DMX, and HP EVA storage systems attached to
twenty Windows servers and ten Solaris servers.
In this scenario, which two Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) configurations are supported?
(Choose two.)
A. HDLM for UNIX for all storage systems
B. HDLM for Windows for all storage systems
C. HDLM for UNIX for Hitachi storage systems only
D. HDLM for Windows for Hitachi storage systems only
Answer: BC

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NO.3 In a new installation of Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) which command is used to install
the Oracle Patch?
A. "orapatch.sql"
B. "orapatch.exe"
C. "installPatch.cmd"
D. "patchupgrade -P -O d:\"
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is planning a Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM) solution.
What are two prerequisites for installing HTSM? (Choose two.)
A. Hitachi 9980v
B. Hitachi USP V
C. Hitachi Tuning Manager
D. Hitachi Device Manager
Answer: BD

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NO.5 A customer is deploying a new USP V into the data center across various servers and operating
systems. During the planning stage you identify Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) 5.8 as the
preferred path management software on the AIX servers.
Which three must you include in a prerequisite check list for the deployment? (Choose three.)
A. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) agent is not installed.
B. Include additional planning for any Virtual I/O (VIO) servers.
C. Check that the Object Data Manager (ODM) update is installed.
D. Check that Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) is compatible with HDLM.
E. Check the operating system levels and fix packs against the release notes.
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 A customer is currently using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) server with a NIC plugged into a public
LAN. This server also has another NIC attached to a private LAN where the Enterprise and Modular
storage systems under management are located. The server has currently IP forwarding enabled to route
physical view launching by Web clients.
Which proposal will provide a more secure configuration and still allow physical view usage from Web
clients on the public LAN?
A. Add a firewall between the HDvM server and the private LAN; disable IP forwarding.
B. Add a firewall between the HDvM server and the public LAN; disable IP forwarding.
C. Add a firewall between the private and public LANs; remove the private LAN connection from the
HDvM server.
D. Add a firewall between the private and public LANs; remove the public LAN connection from the HDvM
server.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You have re-installed an existing copy of Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) on a new server.
The HSSM login screen displays a different Unique Client ID (UCID) to the original and is asking for a
license key.
Which statement is correct?
A. The key is already provided on the installation CD.
B. The key is automatically e-mailed following a successful installation.
C. The previous license key will continue to work for up to 120 days from initial installation.
D. HDS product management must be notified of the new UCID so a new key can be created.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your 5 TB Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) Pool contains one hundred 50 GB LDEVs and is
running out of space.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. You create a new Pool and concatenate it with the existing Pool.
B. You create new LDEVs out of free space which are used as HDP Pool Volumes to expand your HDP
Pool.
C. You install a new RAID group and create HDP Pool Volumes in this RAID group and add these to your
HDP Pool.
D. You create a new Pool which meets the space requirements and you migrate the Virtual Volumes into
this newly created Pool.
Answer: BC

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NO.9 A new Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) customer has provided the following server
specifications to manage 1500 MAPs. Their current configuration is shown below:
-- single 3.0 GHz CPU
-- 2 GB RAM
-- 50 GB hard drive
-- Windows Server 2000 SP1
Which statement is true?
A. Proceed with the installation.
B. Server does not meet the minimum specification.
C. Proceed with the installation using the lite option switches.
D. Split the installation over two servers of the same specification.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You support a customer that will be implementing a Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) solution. They
plan on using HDvM to manage several USP600s and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems.
Which statement is correct to manage the AMS systems with HDvM?
A. Storage Navigator is required to use the Physical View.
B. Mapping Guard is required to set up security for the LUNs.
C. Storage Navigator Modular Link and Launch must be set up.
D. Disklock is required to use a lock system for devices accessed from HDvM.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which two operating systems running on the Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) hosts are
supported by Hitachi Global Link Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. IBM AIX 5.3
B. IBM z/OS 1.6
C. Sun Solaris 8
D. Windows NT 4.0
Answer: AC

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NO.12 Your customer is using Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their storage systems. They also
want to provision storage with Hitachi Provisioning Manager.
To allow provisioning of storage, which two tasks must be performed? (Choose two.)
A. Install HDvM agent.
B. Install Provisioning Manager.
C. Install CIM agent extensions.
D. First allocate the host to a Resource group.
Answer: AB

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NO.13 A customer has five hosts available to install the Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) server; a Solaris
server with 512 MB of RAM; a Linux server with 1 GB of RAM; a AIX server with 4 GB RAM; and an
active/passive Windows cluster running Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM) (each node has 4 GB
RAM).
On which server can HDvM be installed?
A. AIX
B. Linux
C. Solaris
D. Windows
Answer: B

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NO.14 In a Solaris installation of Hitachi Tiered Storage Manager (HTSM), which command would you use to
start and stop HTSM from the command line?
A. "hcmdtsm /start", "hcmdtsm /stop"
B. "htsmssrv /start", "htsmssrv /stop"
C. "htsmserver start", "htsmserver stop"
D. "hcmdssrv /start /type TieredStorageManager", "hcmdssrv /stop /type TieredStorageManager"
Answer: C

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NO.15 You are installing Hitachi Device Manager for Windows on a network where resources that are to be
managed by the management server are inside a firewall.
What is required for these objects to communicate with the management server?
A. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
B. Configure the firewall to allow these objects to communicate through each port with the management
server.
C. Configure the firewall to allow these objects to communicate through each port with the management
server. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
D. Add the IP addresses of the managed host to the jpchostfile and to the jpchostfile of the Device
Manager Server. Use the setup utility to add ports to the firewall exceptions list.
Answer: B

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NO.16 A customer has an IBM storage array and is planning to use it as External Storage on the USP V to
migrate an application LUN from external to internal.
Would this migration be disruptive for the application?
A. No, because the customer is using Tiered Storage Manager.
B. No, because the customer has a ShadowImage copy of the LUN.
C. Yes, because the server has to perform a reboot to see the LUN.
D. Yes, because the application must reconfigure the LUN presented by the USP V.
Answer: D

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NO.17 A customer wants to use Hitachi Dynamic Provisioning (HDP) on a USP V.
Which two statements are true regarding the mapping of Dynamic Provisioning (DP)-Volumes to the
application? (Choose two.)
A. Any LDEV can be used as a DP-Pool Volume.
B. Any type of RAID group is available for DP-Pool Volumes.
C. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the size of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 1 TB).
D. The size of a DP-Pool is limited by the number of the DP-Pool LDEVs (max 256).
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Your customer currently has Hitachi Dynamic Link Manager (HDLM) version 4.7 running on ten of their
production servers. They want to simplify the management of running those HDLM instances.
What are two prerequisites for the hosts that are running HDLM to be managed by Hitachi Global Link
Availability Manager (HGLAM)? (Choose two.)
A. Upgrade the HDLM instances to version 5.7 or higher.
B. Install Provisioning Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
C. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or later on the hosts running HDLM 4.7.
D. Install Hitachi Device Manager agent 3.5 or higher after the upgrade to HDLM 5.2.
Answer: AD

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NO.19 In Hitachi Storage Services Manager (HSSM), which two steps are required when discovering a host?
(Choose two.)
A. Provide the administrator password.
B. Provide the IP address of the host to be discovered.
C. Install the appropriate CIM extension on the server you want to manage.
D. Click the Set Default User name and Password link and provide up to three user names and
passwords.
Answer: BC

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NO.20 You have a customer that is running Hitachi Device Manager (HDvM) to manage their 9900Vs, USPs,
and Adaptable Modular Storage (AMS) systems. Your customer wants to change the port number used by
all of the AMS systems for TCP/IP communications.
Which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)
A. The port number for the AMS systems cannot be changed.
B. You must use Storage Navigator Modular to change the port setting in the AMS system.
C. You set the new port number in the Services file for the machine where HDvM server is installed.
D. You set the new port number in the Server.Properties file for the machine where HDvM is installed.
Answer: BC

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Code d'Examen: HD0-300
Nom d'Examen: HDI (Help Desk Manager)
Questions et réponses: 176 Q&As

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NO.1 Your Help Desk is 24x7 and covers support for many areas throughout the country.
An upcoming snow storm is expected to cause power outage.
What helps you prepare for the upcoming days?
A. call answer plans
B. contingency plans
C. UPS usage reports
D. Gap analysis reports
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your support organization has 20 frontline analysts. The Call Management System
produces performance reports that show the amount of time each analyst is on the
phone, performing wrap-up work, and not available. Reports also show the number
of calls taken and the average talk-time per agent.
Based on these reports, what should the manager do to improve the support
organization's performance?
A. publish trend reports for the group as a whole
B. publish a list of agents ranked by who has the most talk time.
C. Recognize and reward the individual who handles the most calls
D. Recognize and reward the individual who has the least :not available" time
Answer: A

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NO.3 You want to be prepared for a potential decrease in workforce scheduling based on
a decrease in customer service requests. What are the three most likely reasons for a
reduction in call volume? (Choose three)
A. Customers are better trained
B. Customers are more experienced
C. Business functions are outsourced
D. System are more stable and mature.
E. Overall business/workforce is reduced.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Which three technologies enable Help Desks to achieve their performance goals?
(Choose three)
A. Automatic Call Distributor
B. Interactive Voice Response
C. Intra-monthly Monitoring System
D. Extra-diem Reporting Application
E. Customer Relationship Management
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Which two service parameters are normally addressed in a Service Level
Agreement? (Choose two)
A. call flows
B. training material
C. products supported
D. days and hours of service
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 You are supporting someone from a different culture. How can you improve your
communication? (Choose three)
A. speak slowly and loudly
B. pause to verify understanding
C. encourage the person to ask for clarification
D. use proper/standard language expressions (eliminate slang)
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 A customer could not get through to a support representative when calling the Help
Desk in the morning. He had to call back later.
Which metric captures this situation?
A. Time in Queue
B. Abandonment Rate
C. Average Speed of Answer
D. First Call Resolution Rate
Answer: B

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NO.8 Who is ultimately responsible for an employee's success or failure?
A. the employee
B. the employee's mentor
C. the employee's manager
D. the employee's team leader
Answer: A

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NO.9 Service Level Agreements document the level of service provided as well as the level
at which that service is provided by which two parties?
A. customer
B. stake holder
C. service provider
D. Help Desk manager
E. Service-level managers
Answer: A,C

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NO.10 An upcoming production rollout could heavily impact normal off-shifts. You decide
to move schedules to cover the upcoming increase in calls. After the staff expresses
their concerns about having to work the new shifts with little warning, you still
decide to implement your off-schedule shift change.
Which leadership trait does this show?
A. the ability to encourage team participation
B. the ability to discourage one-person domination
C. the ability to execute a plan despite adverse conditions
D. the ability to identify unpopular decisions as still necessary
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which three metric calculations impact customer satisfaction? (Choose three)
A. Average Talk Time
B. Abandonment Rate
C. First Call Resolution Rate
D. Averaged Speed of Answer
E. Average After Call Work Time
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.12 Organizational development needs are determined by which three methods?
(Choose three)
A. project analysis
B. position profiling
C. skill gap analysis
D. individual assessment
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.13 What are three benefits of mentoring programs? (Choose three)
A. They help team members improve
B. They help retain personnel with optimal skills.
C. They allow team members potential growth opportunities.
D. They help team members develop strategic vision statements.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.14 What are three functions of an effective support organization in managing
unresolved support issues? (Choose three)
A. recording unresolved issues
B. resolving customer issues
C. escalating unresolved issues
D. monitoring unresolved issues
E. communicating the status of issues
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.15 Which practice is important in improving the supportive atmosphere found in an
open and positive work environment?
A. use of visual status boards
B. empowerment from management
C. access to computer telephony technologies
D. specific statement of performance expectations
Answer: B

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NO.16 What should be addressed in a support center's marketing plan?
A. the support center's budget requirements
B. the support center's staffing requirements
C. the support center's implementation timelines
D. the support center's role in the corporate vision
Answer: D

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NO.17 How can you pursue continuous learning to stay current with industry standards?
(Choose two)
A. create an individual development plan
B. conduct monthly performance reviews
C. volunteer for projects that require you to leam new information
D. communicate a need for change by providing a compelling business rationale
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 Which statement about contract staffing is true?
A. Contract employees can only be let go by their company.
B. Contract employees receive more benefits than full-time employees
C. Contract employees may hinder teamwork if they do not work closely with full-time
employees
D. Contract employees are allowed to work hours that are not specifically defined by
their company.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which traits should a Help Desk manager look for an analyst to determine if the
analyst can effectively multitask?
A. handles stress and prioritize
B. takes the initiative and is creative
C. takes chances and switches topics
D. changes perspectives often and is self sufficient
Answer: A

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NO.20 What are three ways to maintain a balanced and positive outlook when adapting to
new situations, priorities, or demands? (Choose three)
A. concentrate on common goals during times of disagreement
B. develop interests outside of work to provide a stress-free zone
C. identify trends in service, and then develop resources to meet those trends
D. create a personal network of advisors with whom you can share problems and
concerns.
Answer: A,B,D

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Code d'Examen: GB0-183
Nom d'Examen: H3C (Huawei-3Com Certified Network Engineer)
Questions et réponses: 526 Q&As

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NO.1 Quidway
vrp 3.4
A. write
B. save
C. copy
D. reset
B

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NO.2 A.
B. IP
C. A 255.255.0.0
D.
AB

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NO.3 LAN
A.
B.
C.
D. FDDI
ABCD

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NO.4 4000~4999
A.
B.
C.
D.
MAC
D

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NO.5 PPP
CHAP
A. MD5
B. DES
C. RSA
D. SHA
A

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.6 A.
B.
C.
D.
D

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.7 A.
B.
C.
B

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.8 Bc
T. True
F. False
F

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.9 A. IPX
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. IP
BC

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.10 A. 0
B. 10
C. 30
D.
A

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.11 TCP
T. True
F. False
F

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.12 A.
B.
C.
A

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.13 RIP
520
A. TCP
B. UDP
C. IP
D. PPP
B

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.14 T. True
F. False
T

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.15 Quidway VRP
A. ping
B. tracert
C. show path
D. display path
B

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.16 TFTP
A. TCP 68
B. UDP 68
C. TCP 69
D. UDP 69
D

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.17 CE1
31
64K
30
T. True
F. False
F

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.18 IP
A.
IP
B.
IPv4
0.0.0.0
255.255.255.255
C.
32
8
D. IP
IP
0
ABC

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.19 standby threshold 50 20
100M
80M
A.
B.
C.
D.
A

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.20 DCC
IP
IPX
IP
IPX
T. True
F. False
T

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.21 OSPF
A.
B.
C.
D.
E.
ABCDE

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.22 A. IP
1
IP
B. IP
0
IP
C. IP
127
IP
D. IP
1
IP
C

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.23 Quidway AR
A. xmodem
B. ftp
C. tftp
D. HGMP
D

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.24 STP
A. STP
IEEE 802.1D
B. STP
C.
STP
BPDU
STP
D. STP
UPS
ABCD

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.25 Xerox
DEC
Intel
100Mb/s
DIX
DEC,Intel,Xerox
IEEE802.3
T. True
F. False
F

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.26 25
A. FTP
B. TFTP
C. Telnet
D. SMTP
D

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.27 ISDN
A.
1
NT1
B.
2
NT2
C. 1
TE1
D. 2
TE2
E.
TA
ABCDE

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.28 802.3
64byte
1518byte
802.3
64byte
A. 46byte
B. 46bit
C. 2408bit
D. 512bit
A

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.29 OSI
A.
B.
C.
D.
D

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

NO.30 T. True
F. False
T

H3C   GB0-183   certification GB0-183   certification GB0-183

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Code d'Examen: GB0-190
Nom d'Examen: H3C (Construction Small-and Medium-Sized Enterprise Network)
Questions et réponses: 98 Q&As

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NO.1 PN:0,status:NOPAT,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512
VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
B.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102
4VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1212288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
C.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1212289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51
D.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.410
24VPN:0,status:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:591200.76.28.1112288100.0.0.2512200.76.29.4512VPN:0,st
atus:11,TTL:00:01:00,Left:00:00:51Answer:D

H3C examen   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
23. 2Mbps
______
A. V.24
B. RTA baudrate2048000
C. RTB baudrate2048000
D. RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
E. RTA bandrate2048000 RTB virtual-baudrate2048000
Answer:B

H3C   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190
24. ISDNDCC MSR dialer-rule
[MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000
A. ACL3000
B. ACL3000
C. permit deny
D. [MSR]dialer-rule1acl3000permit
Answer:A

H3C examen   certification GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
25. MSR RTA RTB Serial1/0
RTA
[RouterA-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf[RouterA-Serial1/0]ipaddress10.1.1.130[RouterA-Seria11/0]frmapip1
0.1.1.230RTB
[RouterB-Serial1/0]link-protocolfrietf
[RouterB-Serial1/0]interfaceserial0/0.1[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]ipaddress10.1.1.230[RouterB-Serial1/0.1]frm
apip10.1.1.130
______
A. DLCI RTA ping RTBB. RTA ping 10.1.1.2C. RTA
ping 10.1.1.2D. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2E. RTB serial0/0.1 P2MP
RTA ping 10.1.1.2Answer:BD26. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AB

H3C examen   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190
27. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:CD

certification H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190   certification GB0-190
28. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:AC

H3C   GB0-190   certification GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
29. ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BD

certification H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190   certification GB0-190
30. delay
______
A. propagationdelay
B. switchingdelay
C. accessdelay
D. queuingdelay
Answer:ABCD

H3C   GB0-190   certification GB0-190   certification GB0-190

NO.2 A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:BC

certification H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190

NO.3 OSI ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:A

H3C examen   certification GB0-190   certification GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190   certification GB0-190

NO.4 IP 202.135.111.77 ________________
Answer:202.135.111.2554. TCP SYN Z ________
A.a
B.b
C.a+1
D.b+1
Answer:D

certification H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
5.FTP ______
A.20
B.21
C.23
D.22
Answer:B

H3C   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190   GB0-190
6. ______
A.startupB.boot-loaderC.bootfileD.bootstartupAnswer:B7. MTU
MTU ______ ping
A.-a
B.-d
C.-f
D.-c
Answer:C

certification H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190
8. STP BPDU
______
A.Blocking
B.Listening
C.Learning
D.Forwarding
E.Waiting
F.Disable
Answer:B

H3C   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
9. STP SWA
_______ Blocking
A.SWC P1B.SWC P2C.SWD P1D.SWD P2E.
Answer:BD

H3C   certification GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
10. SWA 0 ______
A.[SWA]stppriority0
B.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stppriority0
C.[SWA]stprootpriority0
D.[SWA-Ethernet1/0/1]stprootpriority0
Answer:A

H3C examen   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
11.IP 10.0.10.32 255.255.255.224 ______
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer:B

certification H3C   certification GB0-190   certification GB0-190   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
12.IP 132.119.100.200 255.255.255.240 ______
A.132.119.100.207
B.132.119.100.255
C.132.119.100.193
D.132.119.100.223
Answer:A

H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190
13.TFTP ______
A.67
B.68
C.69
D.53
Answer:C

H3C examen   GB0-190   certification GB0-190
14. Windows ARP
A.displayarp
B.arp-a
C.arp-d
D.showarp
Answer:B

H3C examen   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
15.
HostA----GE0/0--MSR-1--S1/0-----WAN-----S1/0--MSR-2--GE0/0----HostB
MSR MSR-1 S1/0 3.3.3.1/30
MSR-2 S1/0 3.3.3.2/30 MSR-1
iproute-static192.168.1.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2iproute-static192.168.2.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.255.03.3.3.2
192.168.0.0/22 HostB
A. MSR-1
B. MSR-1
C. iproute-static192.168.0.0255.255.252.03.3.3.2
D. MSR-1
Answer:AC

H3C   GB0-190   GB0-190
16.
A.IGP
B.OSPF
C.RIPv1
D.RIPv2
Answer:CD

H3C   GB0-190 examen   GB0-190
17. MSR IP GE0/0
RTA
[RTA]ospf[RTA-ospf-1]area0[RTA-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTA-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority2RTB
[RTB]ospf[RTB-ospf-1]area0[RTB-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.1.10.0.0.3[RTB-GigabitEthernet0/
0]ospfdr-priority
OSPF ______
A.OSPF 192.168.1.0/30 OSPFDR
B. DR BDRC. DR DRotherD.
FULL 2-WayAnswer:B18.
0.0.0.0 S0/0
______
A. 120.1.1.1
B.
C. 3
D. 100
Answer:ABCD

H3C   GB0-190 examen   certification GB0-190
19. RIP MSR
<MSR>displayiprouting-table6.6.6.6RoutingTable:PublicSummaryCount:2Destination/MaskProtoPreCost
NextHopInterface6.6.6.0/24RIP1001100.1.1.1GE0/06.0.0.0/8Static600100.1.1.1GE0/0
6.6.6.6 ______
A. RIP
B. RIP
C. Cost
D.
Answer:A

H3C   certification GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
20. MSR RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPFArea0 RTB
RTC RTA GE0/0 GE1/0 IP 192.168.3.2/24 192.168.4.2/24 RTA
[MSR-ospf-1]area0.0.0.0[MSR-ospf-1-area-0.0.0.0]network192.168.00.0.3.255[MSR-GigabitEthernet0/0]
ospfcost2[MSR-GigabitEthernet1/0]ospfdr-priority0
_____
A. MSR GE0/0 GE1/0 OSPF
B. MSR GE0/0 OSPF
C.RTA GE DRD.RTA GE DRE.
GE0/0 Cost OSPF
Answer:BDE

certification H3C   certification GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
21. GigabitEthernet0/0 HostA IP 192.168.0.2/24
Serial6/0 ACL
firewallenablefirewalldefaultpermitaclnumber3003rule0permittcprule5permiticmpaclnumber2003rule0den
ysource192.168.0.00.0.0.255inerfaceGigabitEthernet0/0firewallpacket-filter3003inboundfirewallpacket-filt
er2003outboundipaddress192.168.0.1255.255.255.0interfaceSerial6/0link-protocolppp
ipaddress6.6.6.2255.255.255.0
______
A.HostA ping
B.HostA ping 6.6.6.2 ping 192.168.0.1C.HostA ping 192.168.0.1
ping 6.6.6.2D.HostA Telnet
Answer:CD

H3C   certification GB0-190   GB0-190   GB0-190 examen
22. RTA NAT
[RTA]aclnumber2000[RTA-acl-basic-2000]rule0permitsource10.0.0.00.0.0.255[RTA-acl-basic-2000]natad
dress-group1200.76.28.11200.76.28.11[RTA]interfaceEthernet0/1[RTA-Ethernet0/1]natoutbound2000add
ress-group1
Client_A Client_B Server RTA NAT ______
A.ProtocolGlobalAddrPortInsideAddrPortDestAddrPort1200.76.28.1112289100.0.0.11024200.76.29.4102

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Fortinet meilleur examen FCNSP, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: FCNSP
Nom d'Examen: Fortinet (Fortinet Certified Network Security Professional (FCNSP v4.2))
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word "Fortinet" in
chat applications.?
The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection.
A.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
B.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "fortinet"; --no_case; )
C.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within 20;
--no_case; )
D.F-SBID( --protocol tcp; --flow from_client; --pattern "X-MMS-IM-Format"; --pattern "fortinet"; --within
20; )
Answer:A

Fortinet   FCNSP   FCNSP   FCNSP

NO.2 Based on the web filtering configuration illustrated in the exhibit, which one of the following statements
is not a reasonable conclusion?
A.Users can access both the www.google.com site and the www.fortinet.com site.
B.When a user attempts to access the www.google.com site, the FortiGate unit will not perform web
filtering on the content of that site.
C.When a user attempts to access the www.fortinet.com site, any remaining web filtering will be
bypassed.
D.Downloaded content from www.google.com will be scanned for viruses if antivirus is enabled.
Answer: B

certification Fortinet   FCNSP   certification FCNSP

NO.3 Which of the following describes the difference between the ban and quarantine actions?
A.A ban action prevents future transactions using the same protocol which triggered the ban. A qarantine
action blocks all future transactions, regardless of the protocol.
B.A ban action blocks the transaction. A quarantine action archives the data.
C.A ban action has a finite duration. A quarantine action must be removed by an administrator.
D.A ban action is used for known users. A quarantine action is used for unknown users.
Answer: A

Fortinet   FCNSP   FCNSP   certification FCNSP

NO.4 Which of the following items are considered to be advantages of using the application control features
on the FortiGate unit?
A.Application control provides application detection regardless of the port used by the application.
B.Application control allows session-ttl to be customized for specific application types.
C.Application control allows custom application types to be added in a similar way to adding custom IPS
signatures.
D.Application control allows an administrator to check which applications are installed on workstations
attempting to access the network.
Answer: AB

Fortinet   FCNSP examen   FCNSP   FCNSP

NO.5 The transfer of encrypted files or the use of encrypted protocols between users and servers on the
internet can frustrate the efforts of administrators attempting to monitor traffic passing through the
FortiGate unit and ensuring user compliance to corporate rules.
Which of the following items will allow the administrator to control the transfer of encrypted data through
the FortiGate unit?
A.Encrypted protocols can be scanned through the use of the SSL proxy.
B.DLP rules can be used to block the transmission of encrypted files.
C.Firewall authentication can be enabled in the firewall policy, preventing the use of encrypted
communications channels.
D.Application control can be used to monitor the use of encrypted protocols; alerts can be sent to the
administrator through email when the use of encrypted protocols is attempted.
Answer: AB

Fortinet   FCNSP examen   FCNSP

NO.6 A DLP rule with an action of Exempt has been matched against traffic passing through the FortiGate
unit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding how this transaction will be handled by the
FortiGate unit?
A.Any other matched DLP rules will be ignored with the exception of Archiving.
B.Any other matched DLP rules are ignored.
C.The traffic matching the DLP rule will bypass antivirus scanning.
D.The client IP address will be added to a white list.
Answer: A

certification Fortinet   FCNSP   FCNSP examen

NO.7 When viewing the Banned User tab in User Monitor in Web Config, the administrator notes the entry
illustrated in the exhibit. Which of the following statements is correct regarding this entry?
A.The entry displays a ban that has been added as a result of traffic triggering a configured DLP rule.
B.The entry displays a ban that was triggered by HTTP traffic matching an IPS signature. This client is
banned from receiving or sending any traffic through the FortiGate.
C.The entry displays a quarantine, which could have been added by either IPS or DLP.
D.This entry displays a ban entry that was added manually by the administrator on Dec 24th.
Answer: A

certification Fortinet   FCNSP   FCNSP examen   FCNSP examen   FCNSP   FCNSP

NO.8 An administrator is examining the attack logs and notices the following entry:
attack_id=100663402 src=192.168.0.79 dst=64.64.64.64 src_port=57133 dst_port=80 interface=port3
src_int=n/a dst_int=n/a status=dropped proto=6 service=http msg="TCP session over limit
Based solely upon this log message, which of the following statements is correct?
A.This attack was blocked by the HTTP protocol decoder.
B.This attack was caught by the DoS sensor.
C.This attack was launched against the FortiGate unit itself rather than a host behind the FortiGate unit.
D.The number of concurrent connections to destination IP address 64.64.64.64 has exceeded the
configured threshold.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which part of an email message exchange is not inspected by the POP3 and IMAP proxies?
A.TCP connection
B.Protocol commands
C.Message headers
D.Message body
Answer: A

Fortinet   FCNSP   FCNSP   FCNSP

NO.10 Which of the following statements are correct regarding the antivirus scanning function on the FortiGate
unit?
A.Antivirus scanning can be configured to block certain file types and patterns.
B.Antivirus scanning provides end-to-end virus protection for client workstations.
C.Antivirus scanning provides virus protection for the HTTP, Telnet, SMTP, and FTP protocols.
D.Antivirus scanning supports banned word checking.
E.Antivirus scanning supports grayware protection.
Answer:AE

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Code d'Examen: EX0-101
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (ITIL Foundation V 3.0 & ITIL Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which process is involved in monitoring an IT service and detecting when the performance drops below
acceptable limits?
A. Service asset and configuration management
B. Event management
C. Service catalogue management
D. Problem management
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the
implementation of a new service?
A. A service option
B. A service transition package (STP)
C. A service design package (SDP)
D. A service charter
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which one of the following do major incidents require?
A. Separate procedures
B. Less urgency
C. Longer timescales
D. Less documentation
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service request?
A. A request from a user for information, advice or for a standard change
B. Anything that the customer wants and is prepared to pay for
C. Any request or demand that is entered by a user via a self-help web-based interface
D. Any request for change (RFC) that is low-risk and which can be approved by the change manager
without a change advisory board (CAB) meeting
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?
A. Definitive media library (DML)
B. Configuration management system (CMS)
C. Statement of requirements (SOR)
D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)
Answer: B

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NO.7 At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be
defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?
A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT services
B. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of services
C. To create and populate a service catalogue
D. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration
management?
A. Describes the topography of the hardware
B. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the services
C. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardware
D. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-101   EX0-101   EX0-101

NO.10 Consider the following list:
1. Change authority
2. Change manager
3. Change advisory board (CAB)
Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?
A. Job descriptions
B. Functions
C. Teams
D. Roles, people or groups
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: EX0-106
Nom d'Examen: EXIN (SCNS Tactical Perimeter Defense)
Questions et réponses: 232 Q&As

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NO.1 As you increase the layers of security in your organization, you must watch the network behavior
closely. How can a firewall have a negative impact on the performance of your network?
A. It can authorize sensitive information from the wrong host
B. It can block needed traffic
C. It can decrypt secure communications that were supposed to get past the firewall encrypted
D. It can restrict bandwidth based on QoS
E. It can filter packets that contain virus signatures
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have implemented an IPSec policy, using only AH. You are analyzing your network traffic in
Network Monitor, which of the following statements are true about your network traffic?
A. You will not be able to view the data in the packets, as it is encrypted.
B. You will not be able to identify the upper layer protocol.
C. You will be able to view the unencrypted data in the packets.
D. You will be able to identify the encryption algorithm in use.
E. You will not be able to view the packet header.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are monitoring the network traffic on your Frame-Relay Internet connection. You notice a large
amount of unauthorized traffic on port 21. You examine the packets, and notice there are no files being
transferred. Traffic on what other port must be examined to view any file contents?
A. 20
B. 119
C. 23
D. 80
E. 2021
Answer: A

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NO.4 What step in the process of Intrusion Detection as shown in the exhibit would determine if given alerts
were part of a bigger intrusion, or would help discover infrequent attacks?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 10
E. 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 As per the specifications of RFC 1191: Path MTU Discovery, MTUs have been defined so that
transmitted datagrams will not unnecessarily become fragmented when traveling across different types of
physical media. You are going to run several packet captures to be sure there are no out of spec packets
on your network. According to these specifications what are the absolute minimum and maximum MTUs?
A. 1492 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
B. 68 Bytes and 65535 Bytes respectively
C. 512 Bytes and 1500 Bytes respectively
D. 512 bits and 1500 bits respectively
E. 512 bits per second and 1500 bits per second respectively
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are introducing a co-worker to the security systems in place in your organization. During the
discussion you begin talking about the network, and how it is implemented. You mention something in
RFC 791, and are asked what that is. What does RFC 791 specify the standards for?
A. IP
B. TCP
C. UDP
D. ICMP
E. Ethernet
Answer: A

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.7 You are configuring your new IDS machine, where you have recently installed Snort. While you are
working with this machine, you wish to create some basic rules to test the ability to log traffic as you desire.
Which of the following Snort rules will log any tcp traffic from any host other than 172.16.40.50 using any
port, to any host in the 10.0.10.0/24 network using any port?
A. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
B. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any -> 10.0.10.0/24 any
C. log udp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
D. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <> 10.0.10.0/24 any
E. log tcp ! 172.16.40.50/32 any <- 10.0.10.0/24 any
Answer: B

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.8 In order to perform promiscuous mode captures using the Wireshark capture tool on a Windows Server
2003 machine, what must first be installed?
A. IPv4 stack
B. IPv6 stack
C. WinPcap
D. Nothing, it will capture by default
E. At least two network adapters
Answer: C

EXIN   EX0-106 examen   EX0-106 examen

NO.9 You are considering your options for a new firewall deployment. At which three layers of the OSI
model does a stateful packet filtering firewall operate?
A. Presentation
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Application
E. Transport
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 You are configuring a new IDS, running Snort, in your network. To better configure Snort, you are
studying the configuration file. Which four of the following are the primary parts of the Snort configuration
file?
A. Postprocessors
B. Variables
C. Preprocessors
D. Output Plug-ins
E. Rulesets
Answer: BCDE

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NO.11 If you wish to create a new rule in ISA Server 2006 so that all file attachments with an .exe extension
that come through the firewall are dropped, what would you select in the Toolbox to create this rule?
A. Content Type
B. User Group
C. Destination Set
D. Protocol Set
E. Extension Type
Answer: A

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NO.12 You have recently taken over the security of a mid-sized network. You are reviewing the current
configuration of the IPTables firewall, and notice the following rule:
ipchains -A input -p TCP -d 0.0.0.0/0 12345 -j DENY
What is the function of this rule?
A. This rule for the output chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
B. This rule for the input chain states that all incoming packets from any host to port 12345 are to be
denied.
C. This rule for the input chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
D. This rule for the output chain states that any TCP traffic from any address destined for any IP address
and to port 12345 is to be denied.
E. This rule for the input chain states that all TCP packets inbound from any network destined to any
network is to be denied for ports 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have just installed a new Intrusion Detection System in your network. You are concerned that there
are functions this system will not be able to perform. What is a reason an IDS cannot manage hardware
failures?
A. The IDS can only manage RAID 5 failures.
B. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP alert messages.
C. The IDS cannot be programmed to receive SNMP trap messages.
D. The IDS cannot be programmed to respond to hardware failures.
E. The IDS can only inform you that an event happened.
Answer: E

EXIN   certification EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.14 You are planning on implementing a token-based authentication system in your network. The network
currently is spread out over four floors of your building. There are plans to add three branch offices.
During your research you are analyzing the different types of systems. Which of the following are the two
common systems token-based authentication uses?
A. Challenge/Response
B. Random-code
C. Time-based
D. Challenge/Handshake
E. Password-Synch
Answer: AC

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NO.15 For the new Snort rules you are building, it will be required to have Snort examine inside the content of
the packet. Which keyword is used to tell Snort to ignore a defined number of bytes before looking inside
the packet for a content match?
A. Depth
B. Offset
C. Nocase
D. Flow_Control
E. Classtype
Answer: B

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NO.16 At a policy meeting you have been given the task of creating the firewall policy. What are the two basic
positions you can take when creating the policy?
A. To deny all traffic and permit only that which is required.
B. To permit only IP traffic and filter TCP traffic
C. To permit only TCP traffic and filter IP traffic
D. To permit all traffic and deny that which is required.
E. To include your internal IP address as blocked from incoming to prevent spoofing.
Answer: AD

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NO.17 When performing wireless network traffic analysis, what is the type and subtype for an 802.11
authentication packet?
A. Type AA Subtype AAAA
B. Type 00 Subtype 1011
C. Type 0A Subtype 0A0A
D. Type 11 Subtype 0000
E. Type A0 Subtype A1A0
Answer: B

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NO.18 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A. Mesh
B. Broadcast
C. Infrastructure
D. Hierarchical
E. Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.19 You have configured Snort to run on your SuSe Linux machine, and you are currently making the
configuration changes to your MySQL database. What is the result of running the following command at
the mysql prompt?
source /usr/share/doc/packages/snort/schemas/create_mysql;
A. This command tells MySQL to connect to the /usr directory when source files are required for Snort
rules.
B. This command tells MySQL that the source files for Snort are located in the /usr directory.
C. This command tells MySQL where to place the Snort capture files in the database.
D. This command tells MySQL to populate the database using the fields provided by Snort.
E. This command tells MySQL where to find the source data for connecting to Snort.
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are configuring a Cisco Router, and are creating Access Control Lists as part of the security of the
network. When creating Wildcard Masks, which of the following rules apply?
A. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
B. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do not check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
C. If the wildcard mask bit is a 1, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
D. If the wildcard mask bit is a 0, then do check the corresponding bit of the IP address for a match.
E. To create a Wildcard Mask, always take the inverse of the Subnet Mask.
Answer: AD

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NO.21 You have been given the task of building the new wireless networks for your office, and you need to
verify that your equipment will not interfere with other wireless equipment frequencies. What wireless
standard allows for up to 11 Mbps transmission rates and operates in the 2.4GHz range?
A. 802.11b
B. 802.11e
C. 802.11a
D. 802.11i
E. 802.11g
Answer: A

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NO.22 During your review of the logs of your Cisco router, you see the following line. What is the meaning of
this line?
%SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty1 (172.16.10.1)
A. A normal, but noteworthy event
B. An informative message
C. A warning condition has occurred
D. A debugging message
E. An error condition has occurred
Answer: A

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NO.23 During a training presentation, that you are delivering, you are asked how wireless networks function,
compared to the OSI Model. What two layers of the OSI Model are addressed by the 802.11 standards?
A. Physical
B. Data Link
C. Network
D. Transport
E. Session
Answer: AB

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NO.24 You are working on your companys IPTables Firewall; you wish to create a rule to address traffic using
ports 1024 through 2048. Which of the following would you use during the creation of your rule?
A. p:1024 P:2048
B. P:1024 p2048
C. p=1024-2048
D. 1024-2048
E. 1024:2048
Answer: E

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NO.25 The exhibit represents a simple routed network. Node 7 is a Windows 2000 Professional machine that
establishes a TCP communication with Node 10, a Windows 2003 Server. The routers are Cisco 2500
series running IOS 11.2.
While working at Node 10, you run a packet capture. Packets received by Node 10, and sent from Node 7
will reveal which of the following combination of source IP and source Physical addresses:
A. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address for Node 7
B. Source IP address 50.0.50.1, Source Physical address for Node 7
C. Source IP address for Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for Node 7
D. Source IP address 10.0.10.115, Source Physical address Router D's Int E0
E. Source IP addresses for both Nodes 7 and Router D's Int E0, Source Physical address for both Nodes
7 and Router D's Int E0.
Answer: D

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.26 In the image, there are two nodes communicating directly, without an access point. In the packet on
the right side of the image, the Address 1 field is blank. If this packet is going to the other computer, what
is the value that must be filled in this blank address field?
A. 2345
B. 1234
C. ABCD
D. <null>
E. ABCD-1234
Answer: B

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NO.27 Your network traffic has increased substantially over the last year, and you are looking into your
caching options for frequently visited websites. What are the two types of caching that ISA Server 2006
supports?
A. Reverse caching
B. Forward caching
C. Inverse caching
D. Recursive caching
E. Real-time caching
Answer: AB

EXIN   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106   EX0-106

NO.28 The CEO of your company has just issued a statement that the network must be more secure right
away. You have discussed several options with the Chief Security Officer and the Chief Technology Officer.
The results of your discussion are to implement IPSec. What are the two prime functions of IPSec that
you can let the CEO know will be addressed with the implementation?
A. Ensure data corruptibility
B. Ensure data integrity
C. Ensure data availability
D. Ensure data security
E. Ensure data deliverability
Answer: BD

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NO.29 You are configuring the rules on your firewall, and need to take into consideration that some clients in
the network are using automatic addressing. What is the IP address range reserved for internal use for
APIPA in Microsoft networks?
A. 169.254.0.0 /4
B. 169.254.0.0 /16
C. 169.254.0.0 /8
D. 169.254.0.0 /0
E. 168.255.0.0 /16
Answer: B

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NO.30 There are several options available to you for your new wireless networking technologies, and you are
examining how different systems function. What transmission system uses short bursts combined
together as a channel?
A. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C. Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D. Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E. Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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L'importance de la position de Certificat EXIN EX0-106 dans l'industrie IT est bien claire pour tout le monde, mais c'est pas facile à obtenir ce Certificat. Il y a beaucoup de Q&As qui manquent une haute précision des réponses. Cependant, Pass4Test peut offrir des matériaux pratiques pour toutes les personnes à participer l'examen de Certification, et il peut aussi offrir à tout moment toutes les informations que vous auriez besoin à réussir l'examen EXIN EX0-106 par votre première fois.